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NO.1 You publish an application named MyApp to Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). You grant
access to the web APIs through OAuth 2.0.
MyApp is generating numerous user consent prompts.
You need to reduce the amount of user consent prompts.
What should you do?
A. Enable Multi-resource refresh tokens.
B. Enable WS-federation access tokens.
C. Configure the Open Web Interface for .NET.
D. Configure SAML 2.0.
Answer: B
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Explanation:
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/azure/gg185933.aspx
NO.2 You manage a cloud service that is running in two small instances. The cloud service hosts
a help desk application. The application utilizes a virtual network connection to synchronize data to
the company's internal accounting system.
You need to reduce the amount of time required for data synchronization.
What should you do?
A. Configure the servers as large instances and re-deploy.
B. Increase the instance count to three.
C. Deploy the application to Azure Web Sites.
D. Increase the processors allocated to the instances.
Answer: A
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Explanation:
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/azure/dn197896.aspx
NO.3 HOTSPOT
You have an Azure SQL Database named Contosodb. Contosodb is running in the Standard/S2 tier
and has a service level objective of 99 percent.
You review the service tiers in Microsoft Azure SQL Database as well as the results of running
performance queries for the usage of the database for the past week as shown in the exhibits. (Click
the Exhibits button.)
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
Answer:
NO.4 You are migrating a local virtual machine (VM) to an Azure VM. You upload the virtual hard disk
(VHD) file to Azure Blob storage as a Block Blob.
You need to change the Block 8lob to a page blob.
What should you do?
A. Delete the Block Blob and re-upload the VHD as a page blob.
B. Update the type of the blob programmatically by using the Azure Storage .NET SDK.
C. Update the metadata of the current blob and set the Blob-Type key to Page.
D. Create a new empty page blob and use the Azure Blob Copy Power Shell cmdlet to copy the
current data to the new blob.
Answer: A
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Explanation:
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn466429.aspx
NO.5 You manage an Azure subscription with virtual machines (VMs) that are running in Standard
mode.
You need to reduce the storage costs associated with the VMs.
What should you do?
A. Locate and remove orphaned disks.
B. Add the VMs to an affinity group.
C. Change VMs to the Basic tier.
D. Delete the VHD container.
Answer: A
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NO.6 You administer an Azure Web Site named contoso. You create a job named
Cleanlogs.cmd that will be executed manually, twice a week.
You need to deploy the job.
To which folder location should you deploy CleanLogs.cmd?
A. ./App_Code/jobs/triggered/cleanLogs/CleanLogs.cmd
B. ./App_Data/jobs/triggered/clean Logs/Clean Logs.cmd
C. ./App_Code/jobs/continuous/cleanLogs/CleanLogs.cmd
D. ./App_Data/jobs/continuous/cleanLogs/CleanLogs.cmd
Answer: B
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Explanation:
http://blog.amitapple.com/post/74215124623/deploy-azurewebjobs/#.VDZam_mSx8E
NO.7 You manage a virtual Windows Server 2012 web server that is hosted by an on-premises
Windows Hyper-V server. You plan to use the virtual machine (VM) in Azure.
You need to migrate the VM to Azure Storage to add it to your repository.
Which Azure Power Shell cmdlet should you use?
A. Import-AzureVM
B. New-AzureVM
C. Add-AzureDisk
D. Add-AzureWebRole
E. Add-AzureVhd
Answer: E
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Explanation:
Ref: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn495173.aspx
NO.8 You develop a set of Power Shell scripts that will run when you deploy new virtual machines
(VMs).
You need to ensure that the scripts are executed on new VMs. You want to achieve this goal by using
the least amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Create a new GPO to execute the scripts as a logon script.
B. Create a SetupComplete.cmd batch file to call the scripts after the VM starts.
C. Create a new virtual hard disk (VHD) that contains the scripts.
D. Load the scripts to a common file share accessible by the VMs.
E. Set the VMs to execute a custom script extension.
Answer: A
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2015年4月29日星期三
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NO.1 An organization acquires your company.
You need to change the root business unit in Microsoft Dynamics CRM.
What should you do?
A. Rename the root business unit with the new company name.
B. Create a new business unit and reassign it as the root business unit.
C. Rename the organization in the System Settings.
D. Create a new business unit and re-parent the original root business unit
Answer: A
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NO.2 You are configuring user access in Microsoft Dynamics CRM.
You need each account to have a unique group of people who have write permissions to the account.
What should you do?
A. Have Dynamics CRM automatically create access teams for each record, and manually share the
account with the appropriate
B. Create an owner team, and assign the accounts to the owner team.
C. Create an access team template, and add to the account form a sub-grid that references the access
team template.
D. Manually create an access team record for each account and assign the account to the access
team.
Answer: D
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NO.3 You are creating a custom entity.
Which two Primary Field properties can be changed when the entity is created? Each correct answer
presents a complete solution. Choose two,
A. Maximum Length
B. Schema Prefix
C. Field Requirement
D. Data Type
Answer: A,C
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NO.4 You create a new solution for your company in Microsoft Dynamics CRM.
At which three levels can you configure auditing? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
Choose three
A. user
B. attribute
C. business unit
D. entity
E. organization
Answer: B,D,E
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NO.5 A salesperson reports that quick find searches on accounts are taking too long.
Which two best practices should you suggest to the salesperson? Each correct answer presents a
complete solution. Choose two.
A. Add a find field to the view.
B. Ensure there is not an asterisk (*) at the beginning of the search term.
C. Ensure there is an asterisk (*) at the beginning of the search term.
D. Create a personal view.
Answer: B,D
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Exam Code: 70-516
Exam Name: TS: Accessing Data with Microsoft .NET Framework 4
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Updated: 04-29,2015
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Exam Code: 070-462
Exam Name: Administering Microsoft SQL Server 2012 Databases
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Exam Code: MB2-707
Exam Name: Microsoft Dynamics CRM Customization and Configuration
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NO.1 An organization acquires your company.
You need to change the root business unit in Microsoft Dynamics CRM.
What should you do?
A. Rename the root business unit with the new company name.
B. Create a new business unit and reassign it as the root business unit.
C. Rename the organization in the System Settings.
D. Create a new business unit and re-parent the original root business unit
Answer: A
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NO.2 You are configuring user access in Microsoft Dynamics CRM.
You need each account to have a unique group of people who have write permissions to the account.
What should you do?
A. Have Dynamics CRM automatically create access teams for each record, and manually share the
account with the appropriate
B. Create an owner team, and assign the accounts to the owner team.
C. Create an access team template, and add to the account form a sub-grid that references the access
team template.
D. Manually create an access team record for each account and assign the account to the access
team.
Answer: D
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NO.3 You are creating a custom entity.
Which two Primary Field properties can be changed when the entity is created? Each correct answer
presents a complete solution. Choose two,
A. Maximum Length
B. Schema Prefix
C. Field Requirement
D. Data Type
Answer: A,C
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NO.4 You create a new solution for your company in Microsoft Dynamics CRM.
At which three levels can you configure auditing? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
Choose three
A. user
B. attribute
C. business unit
D. entity
E. organization
Answer: B,D,E
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NO.5 A salesperson reports that quick find searches on accounts are taking too long.
Which two best practices should you suggest to the salesperson? Each correct answer presents a
complete solution. Choose two.
A. Add a find field to the view.
B. Ensure there is not an asterisk (*) at the beginning of the search term.
C. Ensure there is an asterisk (*) at the beginning of the search term.
D. Create a personal view.
Answer: B,D
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NO.1 What Common capabilities does a Storage Hypervisor provide?
A. Encryption
B. Increase performance by using the EMC pass through driver
C. Better Storage Management
D. Scheduling
Answer: C
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NO.2 Your Prospect is NOT interested in changing their competitive backup/recovery product. What
should you do?
A. Ask how long they've owned their software(s) and if they can confidently recover their data as
quickly as needed and are ready to handle their growth for next 3 years
B. Ask about their deduplication ratios and their encryption needs to comply with PCI and HIPAA
regulations that require change
C. Offer a Butterfly analysis to help them see their environment including current and future total
costs of running backup/recovery.
D. A and C
Answer: C
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NO.3 Which of these is NOT a Competitor to IBM Tivoli Storage Manager?
A. CommVault
B. NetBackup
C. EMC Avamar
D. SpectraLogic
Answer: D
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NO.4 Which of the following does Server Hypervisors NOT provide?
A. Better utilization across many different types of disk
B. Pooled physical resources are consumed by virtual machines resulting in high asset utilization
C. Virtual machines are mobile giving CIO's their choice of physical server device
D. A common set of value capabilities and centralized management are provided for virtual
machines regardless of what physical server they are sitting on
Answer: A
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NO.5 Which of the following types of De-Duplication does TSM NOT support?
A. Client Side
B. Server Side
C. Switch based
Answer: C
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NO.6 Which is NOT true about using the Butterfly Analysis?
A. It opens the door to conversations with competitively installed accounts
B. Installs agents on the backup clients to collect business information and run analytics
C. Shortens sales cycles by exposing problems and creating a sense of urgency
D. Quantifies the financial benefits of migrating from a competing solution to IBM
E. All of the above
Answer: B
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NO.7 Can EMC and HP provide the same function as a storage hypervisor?
A. Regardless type of disks
B. Regardless of the vendor of disks
C. Only on their own brand of disks
D. Only on IBM disk
Answer: C
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NO.8 Which product is NOT included in the TSM Suite for Unified Recovery?
A. TSM for VE
B. TSM for DB's
C. TSM for SharePoint
D. TSM Fastback
Answer: C
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NO.1 What Common capabilities does a Storage Hypervisor provide?
A. Encryption
B. Increase performance by using the EMC pass through driver
C. Better Storage Management
D. Scheduling
Answer: C
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NO.2 Your Prospect is NOT interested in changing their competitive backup/recovery product. What
should you do?
A. Ask how long they've owned their software(s) and if they can confidently recover their data as
quickly as needed and are ready to handle their growth for next 3 years
B. Ask about their deduplication ratios and their encryption needs to comply with PCI and HIPAA
regulations that require change
C. Offer a Butterfly analysis to help them see their environment including current and future total
costs of running backup/recovery.
D. A and C
Answer: C
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NO.3 Which of these is NOT a Competitor to IBM Tivoli Storage Manager?
A. CommVault
B. NetBackup
C. EMC Avamar
D. SpectraLogic
Answer: D
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NO.4 Which of the following does Server Hypervisors NOT provide?
A. Better utilization across many different types of disk
B. Pooled physical resources are consumed by virtual machines resulting in high asset utilization
C. Virtual machines are mobile giving CIO's their choice of physical server device
D. A common set of value capabilities and centralized management are provided for virtual
machines regardless of what physical server they are sitting on
Answer: A
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NO.5 Which of the following types of De-Duplication does TSM NOT support?
A. Client Side
B. Server Side
C. Switch based
Answer: C
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NO.6 Which is NOT true about using the Butterfly Analysis?
A. It opens the door to conversations with competitively installed accounts
B. Installs agents on the backup clients to collect business information and run analytics
C. Shortens sales cycles by exposing problems and creating a sense of urgency
D. Quantifies the financial benefits of migrating from a competing solution to IBM
E. All of the above
Answer: B
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NO.7 Can EMC and HP provide the same function as a storage hypervisor?
A. Regardless type of disks
B. Regardless of the vendor of disks
C. Only on their own brand of disks
D. Only on IBM disk
Answer: C
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NO.8 Which product is NOT included in the TSM Suite for Unified Recovery?
A. TSM for VE
B. TSM for DB's
C. TSM for SharePoint
D. TSM Fastback
Answer: C
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Exam Code: C2090-541
Exam Name: DB2 9.7 DBA for Linux UNIX and Windows
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Updated: 04-29,2015
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Exam Name: DB2 11 System Administrator for z/OS
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NO.1 Which command will reorg all indexes for a table named TABA?
A. REORG TABLEtaba INDEXES INPLACE
B. REORG TABLEtaba AND INDEXES ALL
C. REORG INDEXES FORtaba
D. REORG INDEXES ALL FOR TABLEtaba
Answer: D
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NO.2 Given the DDL shown below:
CREATE TABLE tab1 (coll SMALLINT );
CREATE VIEW v1 AS SELECT coll FROMtabl WHERE coll > 25 ;
CREATE VIEW V2 AS SELECT COI1 FROM v1 WITH CASCADED CHECK
OPTION
CREATE VIEW v3 AS SELECT coll FROM v2 WHERE coll < 100 ;
Which statement will fail?
A. INSERT INTO v2 VALUES (35)
B. INSERT INTO v1 VALUES (5)
C. INSERT INTO v3 VALUES (25)
D. INSERT INTO v3 VALUES (200)
Answer: C
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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button
Given the INSERT statements shown below:
INSERT INTO applicant VALUES (1 ,'M' 54); INSERT INTO applicant VALUES (2, 'F', 38); INSERT INTO
applicant VALUES (3, 'M', 21); INSERT INTO applicant VALUES (4, 'F', 91); INSERT INTO applicant
VALUES (5, 'C', 50); INSERT INTO applicant VALUES (6, 'C', 70); INSERT INTO applicant VALUES (7, 'C',
95);
How many rows will be successfully inserted?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7
Answer: C
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NO.4 Which statement is correct about informational constraints?
A. An informational constraint can be used by the SQL compiler to improve the access to data and
query performance.
B. The database manager uses an informational constraint to enforce the uniqueness of the key
during changes to the columns of the unique constraint.
C. An informational constraint is a column or combination of columns that has the same properties
as a unique constraint.
D. An informational constraint specifies that every row that is inserted or updated in the table must
conform to the definition of the table.
Answer: A
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5. Click the Exhibit button.
IBM 000-541: Practice Exam
In the exhibit, where would the authentication of the supplied userid and password from a remote
client take place?
A. AIX operating system
B. LDAP Server
C. Kerberos Server
D. "MyPlugin.so" GSS-API plug-in
Answer: B
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6. Which two plug-in types does the DB2 database system provide? (Choose two.)
A. Group retrieval
B. Kerberos authentication
C. Server authentication
D. Encryption authentication
Answer: A,C
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7. What are three authorization categories in DB2? (Choose three.)
A. System-level
B. Database-level
C. Network-level
D. Object-level
E. Instance-level
Answer: A,B,D
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8. What are three system and database level authorizations available with DB2? (Choose three.)
A. SYSMON
B. SYSMNT
C. DBCTRL
D. SYS ADM
E. DBADM
Answer: A,D,E
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9. A DBA wants to use Label Based Access Control (LBAC) to protect Individual rows in a table.
Which data type must be used to create a column to hold the necessary LBAC security data?
A. SYSPR0C.DB2LBACU\BEL
B. SYSPR0C.DB2SECURITYU\BEL
C. SYSIBM.DB2LBACLABEL
D. SYSIBM.DB2SECURITYLABEL
Answer: D
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10. Which administrative authority is needed to run the audit stored procedures and table
functions such as the AUDIT_DELIM_EXTRACT stored procedure?
A. DBADM
B. SECADM
C. SQLADM
D. SYS ADM
Answer: B
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Exam Code: C2090-541
Exam Name: DB2 9.7 DBA for Linux UNIX and Windows
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
IBM C2090-541 Study Guide 104 Q&As
Updated: 04-29,2015
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Exam Code: C2090-317
Exam Name: DB2 11 System Administrator for z/OS
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NO.1 Which command will reorg all indexes for a table named TABA?
A. REORG TABLEtaba INDEXES INPLACE
B. REORG TABLEtaba AND INDEXES ALL
C. REORG INDEXES FORtaba
D. REORG INDEXES ALL FOR TABLEtaba
Answer: D
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NO.2 Given the DDL shown below:
CREATE TABLE tab1 (coll SMALLINT );
CREATE VIEW v1 AS SELECT coll FROMtabl WHERE coll > 25 ;
CREATE VIEW V2 AS SELECT COI1 FROM v1 WITH CASCADED CHECK
OPTION
CREATE VIEW v3 AS SELECT coll FROM v2 WHERE coll < 100 ;
Which statement will fail?
A. INSERT INTO v2 VALUES (35)
B. INSERT INTO v1 VALUES (5)
C. INSERT INTO v3 VALUES (25)
D. INSERT INTO v3 VALUES (200)
Answer: C
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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button
Given the INSERT statements shown below:
INSERT INTO applicant VALUES (1 ,'M' 54); INSERT INTO applicant VALUES (2, 'F', 38); INSERT INTO
applicant VALUES (3, 'M', 21); INSERT INTO applicant VALUES (4, 'F', 91); INSERT INTO applicant
VALUES (5, 'C', 50); INSERT INTO applicant VALUES (6, 'C', 70); INSERT INTO applicant VALUES (7, 'C',
95);
How many rows will be successfully inserted?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7
Answer: C
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NO.4 Which statement is correct about informational constraints?
A. An informational constraint can be used by the SQL compiler to improve the access to data and
query performance.
B. The database manager uses an informational constraint to enforce the uniqueness of the key
during changes to the columns of the unique constraint.
C. An informational constraint is a column or combination of columns that has the same properties
as a unique constraint.
D. An informational constraint specifies that every row that is inserted or updated in the table must
conform to the definition of the table.
Answer: A
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5. Click the Exhibit button.
IBM 000-541: Practice Exam
In the exhibit, where would the authentication of the supplied userid and password from a remote
client take place?
A. AIX operating system
B. LDAP Server
C. Kerberos Server
D. "MyPlugin.so" GSS-API plug-in
Answer: B
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6. Which two plug-in types does the DB2 database system provide? (Choose two.)
A. Group retrieval
B. Kerberos authentication
C. Server authentication
D. Encryption authentication
Answer: A,C
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7. What are three authorization categories in DB2? (Choose three.)
A. System-level
B. Database-level
C. Network-level
D. Object-level
E. Instance-level
Answer: A,B,D
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8. What are three system and database level authorizations available with DB2? (Choose three.)
A. SYSMON
B. SYSMNT
C. DBCTRL
D. SYS ADM
E. DBADM
Answer: A,D,E
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9. A DBA wants to use Label Based Access Control (LBAC) to protect Individual rows in a table.
Which data type must be used to create a column to hold the necessary LBAC security data?
A. SYSPR0C.DB2LBACU\BEL
B. SYSPR0C.DB2SECURITYU\BEL
C. SYSIBM.DB2LBACLABEL
D. SYSIBM.DB2SECURITYLABEL
Answer: D
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10. Which administrative authority is needed to run the audit stored procedures and table
functions such as the AUDIT_DELIM_EXTRACT stored procedure?
A. DBADM
B. SECADM
C. SQLADM
D. SYS ADM
Answer: B
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Exam Code: C-BOCR-08
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - Crystal Reports 2008
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Exam Name: SAP Certified Associate - Utilities with SAP ERP 6.0 (C_FSUTIL_60)
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NO.1 You create a new Crystal report and want to add a Top N sort, but the Group Sort
Expert is inactive.
How can you activate the Group Sort Expert?
A. Insert a group name field.
B. Insert a summary field.
C. Insert a running total field.
D. Insert a formula field.
Answer: B
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NO.2 You want to use the Workbench feature to manage multiple reports and publish them to
BusinessObjects Enterprise as object packages. Your manager is concerned that any Crystal
user could
access and make changes to the reports located on the Workbench. How can you address
your
manager's concerns?
A. Encrypt object packages.
B. Password protect object packages.
C. Assign appropriate permissions to object packages that are published to BusinessObjects
Enterprise.
D. Track changes on object packages using the Dependency Checker.
Answer: C
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NO.3 Which three lines of code will generate an error? (Choose three.)
A. Local Number x := 1;
B. Local NumberVal x := 1;
C. Local NumberVar x := 1;
D. Local NumberValue x := 1;
Answer: A,B,D
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NO.4 When should you use parameters?
A. When creating conditional Top N reports.
B. When identifying the data source location.
C. When identifying trends in data.
D. When creating dynamic groups.
Answer: D
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NO.5 You must create a static array in a Crystal report to be used for numeric calculations
in other formulas.
How can you do this?
A. Global NumberVar Array newArray := Array (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
B. Global NumberVar Array newArray := MakeArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
C. Global NumberVar Array newArray := CreateArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
D. Global NumberVar Array newArray := DefineArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
Answer: B
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NO.6 Which special field can you use to display the date a report was last changed?
A. Modification Date
B. Modification LastDate
C. Modification LastUpdate
D. Modification Time
Answer: A
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NO.7 Which formula uses the correct syntax to assign a variable a value in Crystal syntax?
A. Numbervar x; x = 5;
B. Dim x as Number x = 5
C. Dim x as Number x := 5
D. Numbervar x; x := 5;
Answer: D
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NO.8 In Crystal Reports you select multiple report objects at the same time. Which two menu
options become
available when you right-click one of the selected objects? (Choose two.)
A. Move
B. Insert
C. Delete
D. Copy
E. Cut
Answer: D,E
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Exam Code: C-BOCR-08
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - Crystal Reports 2008
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Exam Name: SAP Certified Associate - Utilities with SAP ERP 6.0 (C_FSUTIL_60)
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NO.1 You create a new Crystal report and want to add a Top N sort, but the Group Sort
Expert is inactive.
How can you activate the Group Sort Expert?
A. Insert a group name field.
B. Insert a summary field.
C. Insert a running total field.
D. Insert a formula field.
Answer: B
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NO.2 You want to use the Workbench feature to manage multiple reports and publish them to
BusinessObjects Enterprise as object packages. Your manager is concerned that any Crystal
user could
access and make changes to the reports located on the Workbench. How can you address
your
manager's concerns?
A. Encrypt object packages.
B. Password protect object packages.
C. Assign appropriate permissions to object packages that are published to BusinessObjects
Enterprise.
D. Track changes on object packages using the Dependency Checker.
Answer: C
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NO.3 Which three lines of code will generate an error? (Choose three.)
A. Local Number x := 1;
B. Local NumberVal x := 1;
C. Local NumberVar x := 1;
D. Local NumberValue x := 1;
Answer: A,B,D
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NO.4 When should you use parameters?
A. When creating conditional Top N reports.
B. When identifying the data source location.
C. When identifying trends in data.
D. When creating dynamic groups.
Answer: D
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NO.5 You must create a static array in a Crystal report to be used for numeric calculations
in other formulas.
How can you do this?
A. Global NumberVar Array newArray := Array (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
B. Global NumberVar Array newArray := MakeArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
C. Global NumberVar Array newArray := CreateArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
D. Global NumberVar Array newArray := DefineArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
Answer: B
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NO.6 Which special field can you use to display the date a report was last changed?
A. Modification Date
B. Modification LastDate
C. Modification LastUpdate
D. Modification Time
Answer: A
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NO.7 Which formula uses the correct syntax to assign a variable a value in Crystal syntax?
A. Numbervar x; x = 5;
B. Dim x as Number x = 5
C. Dim x as Number x := 5
D. Numbervar x; x := 5;
Answer: D
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NO.8 In Crystal Reports you select multiple report objects at the same time. Which two menu
options become
available when you right-click one of the selected objects? (Choose two.)
A. Move
B. Insert
C. Delete
D. Copy
E. Cut
Answer: D,E
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2015年4月27日星期一
Exam HAAD-RN questions and answers
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NO.1 Whilst recovering from surgery a patient develops deep vein thrombosis. The sign that would
indicate this complication to the nurse would be:
A. Intermittent claudication
B. Pitting edema of the area
C. Severe pain when raising the legs
D. Localized warmth and tenderness of the site
Answer: D
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NO.2 A patient admitted to the hospital in hypertensive crisis is ordered to receive hydralazine
(Apresoline) 20mg IV stat for blood pressure greater than 190/100 mmHg. The best response of the
nurse to this order is to:
A. Give the dose immediately and once
B. Give medication if patient's blood pressure is > 190/100 mmHg
C. Call the physician because the order is not clear
D. Administer the dose and repeat as necessary
Answer: A
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NO.3 What two behaviors are important when documenting the depth of the patient's depression?
A. Orientation and appearance
B. Helplessness and hopelessness
C. Affect and thought processes
D. Mood and impulse control
Answer: B
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NO.4 To remove soft contact lenses from the eyes of an unconscious patient the nurse should:
A. Uses a small suction cup placed on the lenses
B. Pinches the lens off the eye then slides it off the cornea
C. Lifts the lenses with a dry cotton ball that adheres to the lenses
D. Tenses the lateral canthus while stimulating a blink reflex by the patient
Answer: B
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NO.5 A patient with duodenal peptic ulcer would describe his pain as:
A. Generalized burning sensation
B. Intermittent colicky pain
C. Gnawing sensation relieved by food
D. Colicky pain intensified by food
Answer: C
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NO.6 A newborn infant is assessed using the Apgar assessment tool and scores 6. The infant has a
heart rate of 95, slow and irregular respiratory effort, and some flexion of extremities. The infant is
pink, but has a weak cry. The nurse should know that this Apgar score along with the additional
symptoms indicates the neonate is:
A. Functioning normally
B. Needing immediate life-sustaining measures
C. Needing special assistance
D. Needing to be warmed
Answer: C
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NO.7 A patient who has just had a miscarriage at 8 weeks of gestation is admitted to hospital. In
caring for this patient, the nurse should be alert for signs of:
A. Dehydration
B. Subinvolution
C. Hemorrhage
D. Hypertension
Answer: C
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NO.8 A patient undergoes laminectomy. In the immediate post-operative period, the nurse shoulD.
A. Monitor the patient's vital signs and log roll him to prone position
B. Monitor the patient's vital signs and encourage him to ambulate
C. Monitor the patient's vital signs and auscultate his bowel sounds
D. Monitor the patient's vital signs, check sensation and motor power of the feet
Answer: D
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NO.1 Whilst recovering from surgery a patient develops deep vein thrombosis. The sign that would
indicate this complication to the nurse would be:
A. Intermittent claudication
B. Pitting edema of the area
C. Severe pain when raising the legs
D. Localized warmth and tenderness of the site
Answer: D
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NO.2 A patient admitted to the hospital in hypertensive crisis is ordered to receive hydralazine
(Apresoline) 20mg IV stat for blood pressure greater than 190/100 mmHg. The best response of the
nurse to this order is to:
A. Give the dose immediately and once
B. Give medication if patient's blood pressure is > 190/100 mmHg
C. Call the physician because the order is not clear
D. Administer the dose and repeat as necessary
Answer: A
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NO.3 What two behaviors are important when documenting the depth of the patient's depression?
A. Orientation and appearance
B. Helplessness and hopelessness
C. Affect and thought processes
D. Mood and impulse control
Answer: B
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NO.4 To remove soft contact lenses from the eyes of an unconscious patient the nurse should:
A. Uses a small suction cup placed on the lenses
B. Pinches the lens off the eye then slides it off the cornea
C. Lifts the lenses with a dry cotton ball that adheres to the lenses
D. Tenses the lateral canthus while stimulating a blink reflex by the patient
Answer: B
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NO.5 A patient with duodenal peptic ulcer would describe his pain as:
A. Generalized burning sensation
B. Intermittent colicky pain
C. Gnawing sensation relieved by food
D. Colicky pain intensified by food
Answer: C
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NO.6 A newborn infant is assessed using the Apgar assessment tool and scores 6. The infant has a
heart rate of 95, slow and irregular respiratory effort, and some flexion of extremities. The infant is
pink, but has a weak cry. The nurse should know that this Apgar score along with the additional
symptoms indicates the neonate is:
A. Functioning normally
B. Needing immediate life-sustaining measures
C. Needing special assistance
D. Needing to be warmed
Answer: C
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NO.7 A patient who has just had a miscarriage at 8 weeks of gestation is admitted to hospital. In
caring for this patient, the nurse should be alert for signs of:
A. Dehydration
B. Subinvolution
C. Hemorrhage
D. Hypertension
Answer: C
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NO.8 A patient undergoes laminectomy. In the immediate post-operative period, the nurse shoulD.
A. Monitor the patient's vital signs and log roll him to prone position
B. Monitor the patient's vital signs and encourage him to ambulate
C. Monitor the patient's vital signs and auscultate his bowel sounds
D. Monitor the patient's vital signs, check sensation and motor power of the feet
Answer: D
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NO.1 Which of the following refers to the act of creating and using an invented scenario to persuade
a target to perform an action?
A. Pretexting
B. Backgrounding
C. Check making
D. Bounce checking
E. None of the choices.
Answer: A
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Explanation:
Pretexting is the act of creating and using an invented scenario to persuade a target to release
information or perform an action and is usually done over the telephone. It is more than a simple lie
as it most often involves some prior research or set up and the use of pieces of known information.
NO.2 An IS auditor was hired to review e-business security. The IS auditor's first task was to examine
each existing e-business application looking for vulnerabilities. What would be the next task?
A. Report the risks to the CIO and CEO immediately
B. Examine e-business application in development
C. Identify threats and likelihood of occurrence
D. Check the budget available for risk management
Answer: C
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An IS auditor must identify the assets, look for vulnerabilities, and then identify the threats and the
likelihood of occurrence. Choices A, B and D should be discussed with the CIO, and a report should be
delivered to the CEO. The report should include the findings along with priorities and costs.
NO.3 Which of the following BEST describes the role of a directory server in a public key
infrastructure (PKI)?
A. Encrypts the information transmitted over the network
B. Makes other users' certificates available to applications
C. Facilitates the implementation of a password policy
D. Stores certificate revocation lists (CRLs)
Answer: B
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A directory server makes other users' certificates available to applications. Encrypting the
information transmitted over the network and storing certificate revocation lists (CRLs) are roles
performed by a security server. Facilitating the implementation of a password policy is not relevant
to public key infrastructure (PKl).
NO.4 Which of the following should an IS auditor recommend to BEST enforce alignment of an IT
project portfolio with strategic organizational priorities?
A. Define a balanced scorecard (BSC) for measuring performance
B. Consider user satisfaction in the key performance indicators (KPIs)
C. Select projects according to business benefits and risks
D. Modify the yearly process of defining the project portfolio
Answer: C
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Explanation:
Prioritization of projects on the basis of their expected benefit(s) to business, and the related risks, is
the best measure for achieving alignment of the project portfolio to an organization's strategic
priorities. Modifying the yearly process of the projects portfolio definition might improve the
situation, but only if the portfolio definition process is currently not tied to the definition of corporate
strategies; however, this is unlikely since the difficulties are in maintaining the alignment, and not in
setting it up initially. Measures such as balanced scorecard (BSC) and key performance indicators
(KPIs) are helpful, but they do not guarantee that the projects are aligned with business strategy.
NO.5 Which of the following refers to a method of bypassing normal system authentication
procedures?
A. virus
B. worm
C. trojan horse
D. spyware
E. rootkits
F. backdoor
G. None of the choices.
Answer: F
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Explanation:
A backdoor is a method of bypassing normal authentication procedures.
Many computer manufacturers used to preinstall backdoors on their systems to provide technical
support for customers. Hackers typically use backdoors to secure remote access to a computer,
while attempting to remain hidden from casual
inspection. To install backdoors, hackers prefer to use either Trojan horse or computer worm.
NO.6 When developing a security architecture, which of the following steps should be executed
FIRST?
A. Developing security procedures
B. Defining a security policy
C. Specifying an access control methodology
D. Defining roles and responsibilities
Answer: B
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Defining a security policy for information and related technology is the first step toward building a
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a security policy.
NO.7 Which of the following is a program evaluation review technique that considers different
scenarios for planning and control projects?
A. Function Point Analysis (FPA)
B. GANTT
C. Rapid Application Development (RAD)
D. PERT
Answer: D
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Explanation:
PERT is a program-evaluation review technique that considers different scenarios for planning and
control projects.
NO.8 Which of the following applet intrusion issues poses the GREATEST risk of disruption to an
organization?
A. A program that deposits a virus on a client machine
B. Applets recording keystrokes and, therefore, passwords
C. Downloaded code that reads files on a client's hard drive
D. Applets opening connections from the client machine
Answer: D
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Explanation:
An applet is a program downloaded from a web server to the client, usually through a web browser
that provides functionality for database access, interactive web pages and communications with
other users. Applets opening connections from the client machine to other machines on the network
and damaging those machines, as a denial-of-service attack, pose the greatest threat to an
organization and could disrupt business continuity. A program that deposits a virus on a client
machine is referred toas a malicious attack (i.e., specifically meant to cause harm to a client
machine), but may not necessarily result in a disruption of service. Applets that record keystrokes,
and therefore, passwords, and downloaded code that reads files on a client's hard drive relate more
to organizational privacy issues, and although significant, are less likely to cause a significant
disruption of service.
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NO.1 Which of the following refers to the act of creating and using an invented scenario to persuade
a target to perform an action?
A. Pretexting
B. Backgrounding
C. Check making
D. Bounce checking
E. None of the choices.
Answer: A
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Explanation:
Pretexting is the act of creating and using an invented scenario to persuade a target to release
information or perform an action and is usually done over the telephone. It is more than a simple lie
as it most often involves some prior research or set up and the use of pieces of known information.
NO.2 An IS auditor was hired to review e-business security. The IS auditor's first task was to examine
each existing e-business application looking for vulnerabilities. What would be the next task?
A. Report the risks to the CIO and CEO immediately
B. Examine e-business application in development
C. Identify threats and likelihood of occurrence
D. Check the budget available for risk management
Answer: C
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Explanation:
An IS auditor must identify the assets, look for vulnerabilities, and then identify the threats and the
likelihood of occurrence. Choices A, B and D should be discussed with the CIO, and a report should be
delivered to the CEO. The report should include the findings along with priorities and costs.
NO.3 Which of the following BEST describes the role of a directory server in a public key
infrastructure (PKI)?
A. Encrypts the information transmitted over the network
B. Makes other users' certificates available to applications
C. Facilitates the implementation of a password policy
D. Stores certificate revocation lists (CRLs)
Answer: B
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Explanation:
A directory server makes other users' certificates available to applications. Encrypting the
information transmitted over the network and storing certificate revocation lists (CRLs) are roles
performed by a security server. Facilitating the implementation of a password policy is not relevant
to public key infrastructure (PKl).
NO.4 Which of the following should an IS auditor recommend to BEST enforce alignment of an IT
project portfolio with strategic organizational priorities?
A. Define a balanced scorecard (BSC) for measuring performance
B. Consider user satisfaction in the key performance indicators (KPIs)
C. Select projects according to business benefits and risks
D. Modify the yearly process of defining the project portfolio
Answer: C
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Explanation:
Prioritization of projects on the basis of their expected benefit(s) to business, and the related risks, is
the best measure for achieving alignment of the project portfolio to an organization's strategic
priorities. Modifying the yearly process of the projects portfolio definition might improve the
situation, but only if the portfolio definition process is currently not tied to the definition of corporate
strategies; however, this is unlikely since the difficulties are in maintaining the alignment, and not in
setting it up initially. Measures such as balanced scorecard (BSC) and key performance indicators
(KPIs) are helpful, but they do not guarantee that the projects are aligned with business strategy.
NO.5 Which of the following refers to a method of bypassing normal system authentication
procedures?
A. virus
B. worm
C. trojan horse
D. spyware
E. rootkits
F. backdoor
G. None of the choices.
Answer: F
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Explanation:
A backdoor is a method of bypassing normal authentication procedures.
Many computer manufacturers used to preinstall backdoors on their systems to provide technical
support for customers. Hackers typically use backdoors to secure remote access to a computer,
while attempting to remain hidden from casual
inspection. To install backdoors, hackers prefer to use either Trojan horse or computer worm.
NO.6 When developing a security architecture, which of the following steps should be executed
FIRST?
A. Developing security procedures
B. Defining a security policy
C. Specifying an access control methodology
D. Defining roles and responsibilities
Answer: B
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Explanation:
Defining a security policy for information and related technology is the first step toward building a
security architecture. A security policy communicates a coherent security standard to users,
management and technical staff. Security policies willoften set the stage in terms of what tools and
procedures are needed for an organization. The other choices should be executed only after defining
a security policy.
NO.7 Which of the following is a program evaluation review technique that considers different
scenarios for planning and control projects?
A. Function Point Analysis (FPA)
B. GANTT
C. Rapid Application Development (RAD)
D. PERT
Answer: D
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Explanation:
PERT is a program-evaluation review technique that considers different scenarios for planning and
control projects.
NO.8 Which of the following applet intrusion issues poses the GREATEST risk of disruption to an
organization?
A. A program that deposits a virus on a client machine
B. Applets recording keystrokes and, therefore, passwords
C. Downloaded code that reads files on a client's hard drive
D. Applets opening connections from the client machine
Answer: D
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Explanation:
An applet is a program downloaded from a web server to the client, usually through a web browser
that provides functionality for database access, interactive web pages and communications with
other users. Applets opening connections from the client machine to other machines on the network
and damaging those machines, as a denial-of-service attack, pose the greatest threat to an
organization and could disrupt business continuity. A program that deposits a virus on a client
machine is referred toas a malicious attack (i.e., specifically meant to cause harm to a client
machine), but may not necessarily result in a disruption of service. Applets that record keystrokes,
and therefore, passwords, and downloaded code that reads files on a client's hard drive relate more
to organizational privacy issues, and although significant, are less likely to cause a significant
disruption of service.
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NO.1 A system administrator has successfully installed the WebSphere Application Server
Network
Deployment core product. The administrator then attempts to start server1, and it fails to
start. On initial
inspection, the administrator finds that the profiles directory is empty. What should the
administrator do
next?
A. Start the node agent for server1.
B. Inspect the SystemOut.log file of server1.
C. Run the Installation Verification Tool (IVT).
D. Run the WebSphere Customization Toolbox.
Answer: D
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NO.2 A system administrator needs to submit a wsadmin job to change the configuration of
an enterprise
application within a flexible management environment. What should the administrator do?
Connect to:
A. Node Agent
B. Administrative Agent
C. Job Manager
D. Work Manager
E. Deployment Manager
Answer: C,E
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NO.3 Web clients are seeing error messages when they try to access a Java EE application.
In order to
isolate the system component that may be causing the problem, the administrator decides to
verify the
request flow from a web browser. In what order should the components be examined?
A. Web server, embedded HTTP server, web services engine
B. Web server, HTTP plug-in, embedded HTTP server, web container
C. Embedded HTTP server, web services engine, web container
D. Load balancer, web server, name server, embedded HTTP server, web container
Answer: B
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NO.4 A system administrator needs to install the IBM Installation Manager (IIM) using non-
graphical
interactive mode. To perform this operation, what should the administrator run?
A. imcl -c
B. imcl -s
C. imcl -install
D. imcl -updateAll
Answer: A
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NO.5 A system administrator has completed a WebSphere installation using the IBM
Installation Manager.
Which tool, using the default settings, can the administrator use to generate an HTML file
verifying the
version of WebSphere installed? Execute the:
A. postinstall command.
B. versionInfo command.
C. genVersionReport command.
D. Installation Verification Tool (IVT).
Answer: C
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NO.6 A remote host machine has been registered to a job manager as a target, and the IBM
Installation
Manager has been installed on the host. How can an administrator install WebSphere
Application Server
Network Deployment V8.0 on the remote host?
A. Use the job manager to schedule a "Manage offerings" job.
B. Schedule a "Distribute file" job to push the installation response file to the remote host.
C. Schedule a "Start application" job to launch the IBM Installation Manager on the remote
host.
D. Use the Installation Factory to create a Centralized Installation Manager (CIM) repository
on the
remote host.
Answer: A
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NO.7 A system administrator configures the intelligent runtime provisioning feature included
with WebSphere
Application Server Network Deployment V8.0. The default WebSphere settings are in place.
At what level
will the administrator enable runtime provisioning?
A. node agent
B. web container
C. application server
D. deployment manager
Answer: C
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NO.8 A system administrator is creating a new WebSphere cell consisting of three dedicated
machines: ?web server ?deployment manager ?application server node To provide process
level failover,
the administrator should create a cluster with:
A. no scaling
B. vertical scaling
C. horizontal scaling
D. horizontal and vertical scaling
Answer: B
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NO.1 A system administrator has successfully installed the WebSphere Application Server
Network
Deployment core product. The administrator then attempts to start server1, and it fails to
start. On initial
inspection, the administrator finds that the profiles directory is empty. What should the
administrator do
next?
A. Start the node agent for server1.
B. Inspect the SystemOut.log file of server1.
C. Run the Installation Verification Tool (IVT).
D. Run the WebSphere Customization Toolbox.
Answer: D
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NO.2 A system administrator needs to submit a wsadmin job to change the configuration of
an enterprise
application within a flexible management environment. What should the administrator do?
Connect to:
A. Node Agent
B. Administrative Agent
C. Job Manager
D. Work Manager
E. Deployment Manager
Answer: C,E
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NO.3 Web clients are seeing error messages when they try to access a Java EE application.
In order to
isolate the system component that may be causing the problem, the administrator decides to
verify the
request flow from a web browser. In what order should the components be examined?
A. Web server, embedded HTTP server, web services engine
B. Web server, HTTP plug-in, embedded HTTP server, web container
C. Embedded HTTP server, web services engine, web container
D. Load balancer, web server, name server, embedded HTTP server, web container
Answer: B
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NO.4 A system administrator needs to install the IBM Installation Manager (IIM) using non-
graphical
interactive mode. To perform this operation, what should the administrator run?
A. imcl -c
B. imcl -s
C. imcl -install
D. imcl -updateAll
Answer: A
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NO.5 A system administrator has completed a WebSphere installation using the IBM
Installation Manager.
Which tool, using the default settings, can the administrator use to generate an HTML file
verifying the
version of WebSphere installed? Execute the:
A. postinstall command.
B. versionInfo command.
C. genVersionReport command.
D. Installation Verification Tool (IVT).
Answer: C
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NO.6 A remote host machine has been registered to a job manager as a target, and the IBM
Installation
Manager has been installed on the host. How can an administrator install WebSphere
Application Server
Network Deployment V8.0 on the remote host?
A. Use the job manager to schedule a "Manage offerings" job.
B. Schedule a "Distribute file" job to push the installation response file to the remote host.
C. Schedule a "Start application" job to launch the IBM Installation Manager on the remote
host.
D. Use the Installation Factory to create a Centralized Installation Manager (CIM) repository
on the
remote host.
Answer: A
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NO.7 A system administrator configures the intelligent runtime provisioning feature included
with WebSphere
Application Server Network Deployment V8.0. The default WebSphere settings are in place.
At what level
will the administrator enable runtime provisioning?
A. node agent
B. web container
C. application server
D. deployment manager
Answer: C
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NO.8 A system administrator is creating a new WebSphere cell consisting of three dedicated
machines: ?web server ?deployment manager ?application server node To provide process
level failover,
the administrator should create a cluster with:
A. no scaling
B. vertical scaling
C. horizontal scaling
D. horizontal and vertical scaling
Answer: B
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NO.1 What is the number of stakeholders, if the project has 28 potential communication channels?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 14
D. 16
Answer: B
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NO.2 An employee approaches you and asks to tell you something in confidence. He advises you
that he has been performing illegal activities within the company for the last year. He is feeling guilty
about it and is telling you in order to receive advice as to what he should do. What should you do?
A. Ask for full details.
B. Confirm that the activity is really illegal.
C. Inform your manager of the illegal activity.
D. Tell the employee to inform his boss.
Answer: C
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NO.3 Expected Monetary Value (EMV) analysis is commonly used in:
A. probability distribution.
B. decision tree diagram.
C. sensitivity analysis.
D. modeling and simu-lation.
Answer: B
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NO.4 The scope management plan is a subsidiary of which project document?
A. Schedule management plan
B. Project management plan
C. Quality management plan
D. Resource management plan
Answer: B
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NO.5 Scope verification is PRIMARILY concerned with which of the following?
A. Acceptance of the work deliverables.
B. Accuracy of the work deliverables.
C. Approval of the scope statement.
D. Accuracy of the work breakdown structure.
Answer: A
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NO.6 Individuals and organizations that are actively involved in or whose interests may be affected
by a project are called which of the following?
A. Organizational members
B. Stakeholders
C. Project team members
D. Project managers
Answer: B
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NO.7 While reviewing project performance, the project manager determines that the schedule
variance is -500. What is the BEST thing to do?
A. Let the sponsor know.
B. Determine the cost variance.
C. Look for activities that can be done in parallel.
D. Move resources from the project to one that is not failing.
Answer: B
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NO.8 All of the following may hinder a person's ability to transmit/receive a message except:
A. Preoccupation
B. Assuming
C. Unfamiliarity with topic
D. Noise
E. Withholding information
Answer: C
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NO.1 What is the number of stakeholders, if the project has 28 potential communication channels?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 14
D. 16
Answer: B
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NO.2 An employee approaches you and asks to tell you something in confidence. He advises you
that he has been performing illegal activities within the company for the last year. He is feeling guilty
about it and is telling you in order to receive advice as to what he should do. What should you do?
A. Ask for full details.
B. Confirm that the activity is really illegal.
C. Inform your manager of the illegal activity.
D. Tell the employee to inform his boss.
Answer: C
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NO.3 Expected Monetary Value (EMV) analysis is commonly used in:
A. probability distribution.
B. decision tree diagram.
C. sensitivity analysis.
D. modeling and simu-lation.
Answer: B
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NO.4 The scope management plan is a subsidiary of which project document?
A. Schedule management plan
B. Project management plan
C. Quality management plan
D. Resource management plan
Answer: B
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NO.5 Scope verification is PRIMARILY concerned with which of the following?
A. Acceptance of the work deliverables.
B. Accuracy of the work deliverables.
C. Approval of the scope statement.
D. Accuracy of the work breakdown structure.
Answer: A
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NO.6 Individuals and organizations that are actively involved in or whose interests may be affected
by a project are called which of the following?
A. Organizational members
B. Stakeholders
C. Project team members
D. Project managers
Answer: B
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NO.7 While reviewing project performance, the project manager determines that the schedule
variance is -500. What is the BEST thing to do?
A. Let the sponsor know.
B. Determine the cost variance.
C. Look for activities that can be done in parallel.
D. Move resources from the project to one that is not failing.
Answer: B
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NO.8 All of the following may hinder a person's ability to transmit/receive a message except:
A. Preoccupation
B. Assuming
C. Unfamiliarity with topic
D. Noise
E. Withholding information
Answer: C
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NO.1 Which of the following statements regarding material determination are correct? Note:
There are
2
correct answers to this question.
A. Condition tables must be defined in Customizing (IMG).
B. The definition of the substitution reason determines whether a manual or an automatic
substitution process should be used.
C. The material determination procedure is assigned to a combination of sales areas, customer
pricing procedures, and document pricing procedures.
D. The relevant substitution reason is specified in the access sequence.
Answer: A,B
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NO.2 Which of the following statements regarding the free goods process is correct?
A. Free goods with exclusive bonus quantity will always create a subitem.
B. Free goods with inclusive bonus quantity will always take place without a subitem being
generated.
C. The free goods calculation rule only allows for whole unit free goods bonus increments.
D. Free goods with exclusive bonus quantity must contain the same material for the ordered
goods
and the free goods.
Answer: A
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NO.3 You want to restrict what materials a customer can order. What do you use to achieve this?
A. Material group
B. Assortment module
C. Material listing
D. Product hierarchy
Answer: C
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NO.4 The availability check (ATP) is carried out based on which of the following dates?
A. The material availability date
B. The transportation planning date
C. The goods issue date
D. The loading date
Answer: A
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NO.5 Which of the following SAP NetWeaver components realizes cross-system application
processes?
A. SAP Exchange Infrastructure (SAP XI) / SAP Process Integration (SAP PI)
B. SAP Master Data Management (SAP MDM)
C. SAP Enterprise Portal (SAP EP)
D. SAP Business Warehouse (SAP BW)
Answer: A
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NO.6 Which of the following SAP NetWeaver components ensures company-wide unification of
data
and information in heterogeneous IT environments?
A. Business Warehouse
B. Knowledge Management
C. Enterprise Portal
D. Master Data Management
Answer: D
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NO.7 The entry for the assignment of the incompleteness procedures to the sales document types
contains the following information: Sales Type: OR Description: Standard Order Procedure: 11
Description: Sales Order Field: IC-dialog is flagged. Which of the following conclusions can you
draw from this entry?
A. Incomplete standard orders must be released in a dialog for further process steps.
B. Procedure 11 specifies which fields in standard orders (header data) are checked for
completeness and order type OR cannot be saved if any of the fields are incomplete.
C. Incomplete standard orders can be saved after a warning message (dialog) appears.
D. Incomplete standard orders can be saved.
Answer: B
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NO.8 In the system, it is possible to have zero stock available and still receive a confirmed
schedule line
in the sales order. Which of the following states the reason for this confirmation?
A. Stock will be taken from another delivery at the shipping point.
B. The system automatically searches other plants for inventory and transfers this inventory to
the
plant with zero inventory in the sales order.
C. The availability check that was carried out included a replenishment lead time in the scope of
check.
D. A stock transfer will be created by inventory management when you save the sales order.
Answer: C
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NO.1 Which of the following statements regarding material determination are correct? Note:
There are
2
correct answers to this question.
A. Condition tables must be defined in Customizing (IMG).
B. The definition of the substitution reason determines whether a manual or an automatic
substitution process should be used.
C. The material determination procedure is assigned to a combination of sales areas, customer
pricing procedures, and document pricing procedures.
D. The relevant substitution reason is specified in the access sequence.
Answer: A,B
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NO.2 Which of the following statements regarding the free goods process is correct?
A. Free goods with exclusive bonus quantity will always create a subitem.
B. Free goods with inclusive bonus quantity will always take place without a subitem being
generated.
C. The free goods calculation rule only allows for whole unit free goods bonus increments.
D. Free goods with exclusive bonus quantity must contain the same material for the ordered
goods
and the free goods.
Answer: A
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NO.3 You want to restrict what materials a customer can order. What do you use to achieve this?
A. Material group
B. Assortment module
C. Material listing
D. Product hierarchy
Answer: C
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NO.4 The availability check (ATP) is carried out based on which of the following dates?
A. The material availability date
B. The transportation planning date
C. The goods issue date
D. The loading date
Answer: A
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NO.5 Which of the following SAP NetWeaver components realizes cross-system application
processes?
A. SAP Exchange Infrastructure (SAP XI) / SAP Process Integration (SAP PI)
B. SAP Master Data Management (SAP MDM)
C. SAP Enterprise Portal (SAP EP)
D. SAP Business Warehouse (SAP BW)
Answer: A
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NO.6 Which of the following SAP NetWeaver components ensures company-wide unification of
data
and information in heterogeneous IT environments?
A. Business Warehouse
B. Knowledge Management
C. Enterprise Portal
D. Master Data Management
Answer: D
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NO.7 The entry for the assignment of the incompleteness procedures to the sales document types
contains the following information: Sales Type: OR Description: Standard Order Procedure: 11
Description: Sales Order Field: IC-dialog is flagged. Which of the following conclusions can you
draw from this entry?
A. Incomplete standard orders must be released in a dialog for further process steps.
B. Procedure 11 specifies which fields in standard orders (header data) are checked for
completeness and order type OR cannot be saved if any of the fields are incomplete.
C. Incomplete standard orders can be saved after a warning message (dialog) appears.
D. Incomplete standard orders can be saved.
Answer: B
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NO.8 In the system, it is possible to have zero stock available and still receive a confirmed
schedule line
in the sales order. Which of the following states the reason for this confirmation?
A. Stock will be taken from another delivery at the shipping point.
B. The system automatically searches other plants for inventory and transfers this inventory to
the
plant with zero inventory in the sales order.
C. The availability check that was carried out included a replenishment lead time in the scope of
check.
D. A stock transfer will be created by inventory management when you save the sales order.
Answer: C
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2015年4月26日星期日
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NO.1 How does an IBM Domino server determine which documents to replicate for an application?
A. Only those documents marked for replication by the user are replicated.
B. The Domino server checks each document for the "$Has_Replicated" field.
C. The Domino server checks replication history and replicates only those documents that have
changed since the last replication.
D. The LastUpdated property of the application is checked. The Domino server replicates only
those documents added since the LastUpdatedtime.
Answer: C
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NO.2 Robin is developing an XPage application, but she mistakenly closed the Controls and Data
views
in IBM Domino Designer. How can Robin reopen these views?
A. From the Window menu, select XPages under the 'Open Perspective' submenu.
B. Enable the 'XPages views' option on the XPage tab of the Application Properties.
C. In the Domino Designer Preferences on the XPage section, check the Controls and Data view
options.
D. In the Application Navigator, right-click on the XPage application and enable the Controls and
Data view options.
Answer: A
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NO.3 Mary Beth and Kathleen work in the same department. From time to time, they need to see
what
the other one is doing when they show as 'busy' in their calendar. What minimum level of
delegation would Mary Beth need to give Kathleen so that Kathleen can view calendar entries?
A. Automatic forwarding
B. Read, create, edit and delete for Mail
C. Read access for Calendar, To Do and Contacts
D. Read access to Mail, Calendar, To Do and Contacts
Answer: C
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6. James has enabled the Recipients Icons option and notices that no icon is displayed for a
message. Why would no icon be displayed for a message where he is the recipient?
A. James is in the BCC field. When the recipient is in the BCC field, no icon is displayed.
B. The message was sent using an alias name. Messages using an alias do not reflect an icon.
C. James is in the CC field. Only messages where the user is in the To field will reflect the icon.
D. James is also the sender. Messages where the recipient is also the sender do not reflect an
icon.
Answer: A
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7. Max has an application that her company's Chicago office uses on their Chicago server. She
would like her company's Boston office to access the same application on their Boston server but
needs for changes to each application to be kept in sync. How should Max create the application
on the Boston server?
A. Max should create a new copy of the application on the Boston server.
B. Max should create a new replica of the application on the Boston server.
C. Max should create a new application based off the template on the Boston server.
D. Max should create a new application based off the Single Copy Template on the Boston server.
Answer: B
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8. If a valid mail rule action does not work, which action type may have been disabled by the
system
administrator?
A. send copy to
B. copy to folder
C. delete message
D. change importance to
Answer: A
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9. Which of the following statements describes the IBM Domino Roaming Server?
A. The Domino Roaming Server is always a mail server.
B. The Domino Roaming Server is always an application server.
C. The Domino Roaming Server is always the home mail server.
D. The Domino Roaming Server can be, but is not always, the home or mail server.
Answer: D
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10. If a mobile device is lost or stolen, an administrator can issue a remote wipe command to
remove
all sensitive data from the device. What application would the administrator use to perform the
action?
A. Traveler.nsf
B. TravConf.nsf
C. IBM Notes Traveler Remote Administrator
D. IBM Domino Administrator client
Answer: D
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NO.4 In order for AdminP to work properly, what must every IBM Domino database have?
A. an AdminP certifier
B. an AdminP xACL entry
C. an AdminP retry interval
D. an Administration server
Answer: D
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NO.5 Which server feature is responsible for name changes and database ACL updates?
A. Name Change Process
B. Replication
C. Extended ACL
D. Administration Process
Answer: D
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NO.1 How does an IBM Domino server determine which documents to replicate for an application?
A. Only those documents marked for replication by the user are replicated.
B. The Domino server checks each document for the "$Has_Replicated" field.
C. The Domino server checks replication history and replicates only those documents that have
changed since the last replication.
D. The LastUpdated property of the application is checked. The Domino server replicates only
those documents added since the LastUpdatedtime.
Answer: C
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NO.2 Robin is developing an XPage application, but she mistakenly closed the Controls and Data
views
in IBM Domino Designer. How can Robin reopen these views?
A. From the Window menu, select XPages under the 'Open Perspective' submenu.
B. Enable the 'XPages views' option on the XPage tab of the Application Properties.
C. In the Domino Designer Preferences on the XPage section, check the Controls and Data view
options.
D. In the Application Navigator, right-click on the XPage application and enable the Controls and
Data view options.
Answer: A
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NO.3 Mary Beth and Kathleen work in the same department. From time to time, they need to see
what
the other one is doing when they show as 'busy' in their calendar. What minimum level of
delegation would Mary Beth need to give Kathleen so that Kathleen can view calendar entries?
A. Automatic forwarding
B. Read, create, edit and delete for Mail
C. Read access for Calendar, To Do and Contacts
D. Read access to Mail, Calendar, To Do and Contacts
Answer: C
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6. James has enabled the Recipients Icons option and notices that no icon is displayed for a
message. Why would no icon be displayed for a message where he is the recipient?
A. James is in the BCC field. When the recipient is in the BCC field, no icon is displayed.
B. The message was sent using an alias name. Messages using an alias do not reflect an icon.
C. James is in the CC field. Only messages where the user is in the To field will reflect the icon.
D. James is also the sender. Messages where the recipient is also the sender do not reflect an
icon.
Answer: A
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7. Max has an application that her company's Chicago office uses on their Chicago server. She
would like her company's Boston office to access the same application on their Boston server but
needs for changes to each application to be kept in sync. How should Max create the application
on the Boston server?
A. Max should create a new copy of the application on the Boston server.
B. Max should create a new replica of the application on the Boston server.
C. Max should create a new application based off the template on the Boston server.
D. Max should create a new application based off the Single Copy Template on the Boston server.
Answer: B
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8. If a valid mail rule action does not work, which action type may have been disabled by the
system
administrator?
A. send copy to
B. copy to folder
C. delete message
D. change importance to
Answer: A
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9. Which of the following statements describes the IBM Domino Roaming Server?
A. The Domino Roaming Server is always a mail server.
B. The Domino Roaming Server is always an application server.
C. The Domino Roaming Server is always the home mail server.
D. The Domino Roaming Server can be, but is not always, the home or mail server.
Answer: D
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10. If a mobile device is lost or stolen, an administrator can issue a remote wipe command to
remove
all sensitive data from the device. What application would the administrator use to perform the
action?
A. Traveler.nsf
B. TravConf.nsf
C. IBM Notes Traveler Remote Administrator
D. IBM Domino Administrator client
Answer: D
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NO.4 In order for AdminP to work properly, what must every IBM Domino database have?
A. an AdminP certifier
B. an AdminP xACL entry
C. an AdminP retry interval
D. an Administration server
Answer: D
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NO.5 Which server feature is responsible for name changes and database ACL updates?
A. Name Change Process
B. Replication
C. Extended ACL
D. Administration Process
Answer: D
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NO.1 Which of the following properties of a user account determines whether the user is given
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B. It is listed first in /etc/passwd
C. Its username is root.
D. Its user ID is 0 (zero).
E. Its GECOS (name) field is set to "System Administrator"
Answer: D
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B. /etc/nameserver
C. /etc/hosts
D. /etc/which
E. /etc/resolv.conf
Answer: C,E
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A. ln -sym /home/user/foo /usr/bin/foo
B. ln -s /usr/bin/foo /home/user/foo
C. ln /home/user/foo /usr/bin/foo
D. ln /usr/bin/foo /home/user/foo
E. ln --symlink /home/user/foo /usr/bin/foo
Answer: B
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NO.4 Which command chain will count the number of regular files with the name of foo.txt within
/home?
A. ls -lR /home | grep foo.txt | wc -l
B. find /home -type f -name foo.txt | wc -l
C. find /home -name foo.txt -count
D. find /home -name foo.txt | wc -l
E. grep -R foo.txt /home | wc -l
Answer: B
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NO.5 Which command lists all files in the current directory that start with a capital letter?
A. ls [A-Z]*
B. ls A-Z
C. ls A-Z*
D. ls --uppercasefiles
E. list-uppercase-files
Answer: A
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NO.6 Given a directory with the following information: drwxrwxrwxt 12 tu tg 36864 2012-03-15
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A. Everybody can create files in the directory.
B. Files in the directory are created with read, write and execute permissions for everyone.
C. The directory is broken.
D. Everybody can delete only his own files.
E. The directory is a security risk.
Answer: A,D
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NO.7 Which of the following commands will output all of the lines with the name Fred in upper or
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A. grep -v fred data_file
B. grep '[f]red' data_file
C. egrep fred data_file
D. grep '[Ff]red' data_file
E. grep -i fred data_file
Answer: D,E
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NO.8 Which command will display the last line of the file foo.txt?
A. head -n 1 foo.txt
B. tail foo.txt
C. last -n 1 foo.txt
D. tail -n 1 foo.txt
Answer: D
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NO.1 Which of the following properties of a user account determines whether the user is given
administrator privileges?
A. Its primary group ID is 0 (zero).
B. It is listed first in /etc/passwd
C. Its username is root.
D. Its user ID is 0 (zero).
E. Its GECOS (name) field is set to "System Administrator"
Answer: D
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NO.2 Which files will affect the domain name resolution system on Linux?(Choose two)
A. /etc/hostname
B. /etc/nameserver
C. /etc/hosts
D. /etc/which
E. /etc/resolv.conf
Answer: C,E
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NO.3 You have a program called /usr/bin/foo. You wish to create a symbolic link, /home/user/foo,
that points to it. Which command will do this task?
A. ln -sym /home/user/foo /usr/bin/foo
B. ln -s /usr/bin/foo /home/user/foo
C. ln /home/user/foo /usr/bin/foo
D. ln /usr/bin/foo /home/user/foo
E. ln --symlink /home/user/foo /usr/bin/foo
Answer: B
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NO.4 Which command chain will count the number of regular files with the name of foo.txt within
/home?
A. ls -lR /home | grep foo.txt | wc -l
B. find /home -type f -name foo.txt | wc -l
C. find /home -name foo.txt -count
D. find /home -name foo.txt | wc -l
E. grep -R foo.txt /home | wc -l
Answer: B
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NO.5 Which command lists all files in the current directory that start with a capital letter?
A. ls [A-Z]*
B. ls A-Z
C. ls A-Z*
D. ls --uppercasefiles
E. list-uppercase-files
Answer: A
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NO.6 Given a directory with the following information: drwxrwxrwxt 12 tu tg 36864 2012-03-15
/home/directory/ Which of the following statements are true?(Choose two)
A. Everybody can create files in the directory.
B. Files in the directory are created with read, write and execute permissions for everyone.
C. The directory is broken.
D. Everybody can delete only his own files.
E. The directory is a security risk.
Answer: A,D
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NO.7 Which of the following commands will output all of the lines with the name Fred in upper or
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A. grep -v fred data_file
B. grep '[f]red' data_file
C. egrep fred data_file
D. grep '[Ff]red' data_file
E. grep -i fred data_file
Answer: D,E
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Topic 4, The Linux Operating System
NO.8 Which command will display the last line of the file foo.txt?
A. head -n 1 foo.txt
B. tail foo.txt
C. last -n 1 foo.txt
D. tail -n 1 foo.txt
Answer: D
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NO.1 Which components are required in a minimum server setup for Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012?
A.Application Object Server (AOS) and Database Server
B.Application Object Server (AOS) and Report Server
C.Database Server and Analysis Server
D.Database Server and Web Server
Answer: A
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NO.2 In Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012, what is the default TCP/IP port number used by the Application Object
Server (AOS) function?
A.1428
B.1433
C.2710
D.2712
Answer: D
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NO.3 In Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012, to which types of internal organizations can the Centralized Payments
hierarchy purpose be assigned?
A.all party entities
B.only legal entities
C.only operating units
D.only teams
Answer: B
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NO.4 In Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012, which of the following operating units is used for financial reporting
and is based on industries or product lines that the organization serves independently of legal entities?
A.business unit
B.cost center
C.department
D.value stream
Answer: A
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NO.5 Which Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 tool should you use to troubleshoot performance issues?
A.Debugger
B.Development Workspace Tools
C.Management Utilities
D.Trace Parser
Answer: D
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NO.6 Which of the following web browsers meet the minimum requirements for client computers to access
Enterprise Portal for Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012? (Choose all that apply.)
A.Mozilla Firefox 2
B.Mozilla Firefox 3.5
C.Windows Internet Explorer 7
D.Windows Internet Explorer 8
E.Windows Internet Explorer 9
Answer: ADE
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NO.7 In Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012, which of the following components will run only on a 64-bit operating
system? (Choose all that apply.)
A.Enterprise Portal for Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012
B.Help Server
C.Synchronization Service
D.Web Services
Answer: AD
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NO.8 In a multiple-server Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 environment, which network account can be used for
the Dynamics AX Object Server Windows service?
A.Domain name\domain account
B.NT AUTHORITY\Local Service account
C.Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 user account
D.Microsoft SQL Server Database Owner account
Answer: A
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Exam Code: 70-532
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft Azure Solutions
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NO.1 Which components are required in a minimum server setup for Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012?
A.Application Object Server (AOS) and Database Server
B.Application Object Server (AOS) and Report Server
C.Database Server and Analysis Server
D.Database Server and Web Server
Answer: A
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NO.2 In Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012, what is the default TCP/IP port number used by the Application Object
Server (AOS) function?
A.1428
B.1433
C.2710
D.2712
Answer: D
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NO.3 In Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012, to which types of internal organizations can the Centralized Payments
hierarchy purpose be assigned?
A.all party entities
B.only legal entities
C.only operating units
D.only teams
Answer: B
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NO.4 In Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012, which of the following operating units is used for financial reporting
and is based on industries or product lines that the organization serves independently of legal entities?
A.business unit
B.cost center
C.department
D.value stream
Answer: A
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NO.5 Which Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 tool should you use to troubleshoot performance issues?
A.Debugger
B.Development Workspace Tools
C.Management Utilities
D.Trace Parser
Answer: D
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NO.6 Which of the following web browsers meet the minimum requirements for client computers to access
Enterprise Portal for Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012? (Choose all that apply.)
A.Mozilla Firefox 2
B.Mozilla Firefox 3.5
C.Windows Internet Explorer 7
D.Windows Internet Explorer 8
E.Windows Internet Explorer 9
Answer: ADE
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NO.7 In Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012, which of the following components will run only on a 64-bit operating
system? (Choose all that apply.)
A.Enterprise Portal for Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012
B.Help Server
C.Synchronization Service
D.Web Services
Answer: AD
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NO.8 In a multiple-server Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 environment, which network account can be used for
the Dynamics AX Object Server Windows service?
A.Domain name\domain account
B.NT AUTHORITY\Local Service account
C.Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 user account
D.Microsoft SQL Server Database Owner account
Answer: A
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