2015年5月28日星期四

Microsoft certification 70-410 exam training programs

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Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
  • Published: September 17, 2012
  • Languages: English, Japanese
  • Audiences: IT professionals
  • Technology: Windows Server 2012
  • Credit toward certification: MCP, MCSA, MCSE
Install and configure servers (15–20%)
Configure server roles and features (15–20%)
Configure Hyper-V (15–20%)
Deploy and configure core network services (15–20%)
Install and administer Active Directory (15–20%)
Create and manage Group Policy (15–20%)

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70-410Exam Code: 70-410
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NO.1 Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a single domain. The domain contains two domain controllers named DC1 and DC2 that run Windows
Server 2012 R2.
The domain contains a user named User1 and three global security groups named Group1, Group2
and, Group3.
You need to add User1 to Group1, Group2, and Group3.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Add-AdPrincipalGroupMembership
B. Install-AddsDomainControllcr
C. Install-WindowsFeature
D. Install-AddsDomain
E. Rename-AdObject
F. Set-AdAccountControl
G. Set-AdGroup
H. Set-User
Answer: A

Microsoft test questions  
Explanation:
The Add-ADPrincipalGroupMembershipcmdlet adds a user, group, service account, or computer as a
new member to one or more Active Directory groups.
References: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee617203.aspx
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh974723.aspx

NO.2 DRAG DROP
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a
member server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the File and Storage
Services server role installed.
On Server1, you create a share named Documents. The Share permission for the Documents share is
configured as shown in the following table.
The NTFS permission for the Documents share is configured as shown in the following table.
You need to configure the Share and NTFS permissions for the Documents share.
The permissions must meet the following requirements:
- Ensure that the members of a group named Group1 can read files and run programs in Documents.
- Ensure that the members of Group1 can modify the permissions on only their own
files in Documents. - Ensure that the members of Group1 can create folders and files in Documents.
- Minimize the number of permissions assigned to users and groups.
How should you configure the permissions?
To answer, drag the appropriate permission to the correct location. Each permission may be used
once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to
view content.
Answer:

NO.3 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You have a starter Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 that contains more than 100 settings.
You need to create a new starter GPO based on the settings in GPO1.
You must achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Create a new starter GPO and manually configure the policy settings of the starter GPO.
B. Right-click GPO1, and then click Back Up. Create a new starter GPO. Right-click the new GPO, and
then click Restore from Backup.
C. Right-click GPO1, and then click Copy. Right-click Starter GPOs, and then click Paste.
D. Run the New-GPStarterGPOcmdlet and the Copy-GPO cmdlet.
Answer: C



NO.4 Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a
child domain named corp.contoso.com.
The network has Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 deployed.
You need to create a mail-enabled distribution group.
Which type of group should you create?
A. global
B. local
C. domain local
D. universal
Answer: D

Microsoft Exam PDF  
Explanation:
Universal groups are used to grant permissions on a wide scale throughout a domain tree or forest.
Members of global groups include accounts and groups from any domain in the domain tree or
forest. Only universal groups should be used as mail-enabled groups.

NO.5 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains
two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2.Server1 has the Group
Policy Management feature installed. Server2 has the Print and Document Services server role
installed.
On Server2, you open Print Management and you deploy a printer named Printer1 by using a Group
Policy object (GPO) named GPO1.When you open GPO1 on Server1, you discover that the Deployed
Printers node does not appear.
You need to view the Deployed Printers node in GPO1.
What should you do?
A. On Server1, modify the Group Policy filtering options of GPO1.
B. On a domain controller, create a Group Policy central store.
C. On Server2, install the Group Policy Management feature.
D. On Server1, configure the security filtering of GPO1.
Answer: C

NO.6 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains
100 user accounts that reside in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1.
You need to ensure that a user named User1 can link and unlink Group Policy objects (GPOs) to OU1.
The solution must minimize the number of permissions assigned to User1.
What should you do?
A. Run the Delegation of Control Wizard on OU1.
B. Add User1 to the Group Policy Creator Owners group.
C. Modify the permission on the \\Contoso.com\SYSVOL\Contoso.com\Policies folder.
D. Modify the permissions on the User1 account.
Answer: A

Explanation:
Share permissions apply to users who connect to a shared folder over the network. Share permissions do not affect users who log on locally, or log on using Remote Desktop. You need to navigate from your Windows interface to open Computer Management from where you can assign the appropriate permissions regarding the properties of the volume where the home folders reside.
References: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc726004.aspx

NO.7 HOTSPOT
You have a server named DHCP1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. DHCP1 does not have access to
the Internet.
All roles are removed completely from DHCP1.
You mount a Windows Server 2012 R2 installation image to the C:\Mount folder.
You need to install the DHCP Server server role on DHCP1 by using Server Manager.
Which folder should you specify as the alternate path for the source files?
To answer, select the appropriate folder in the answer area.
Answer:

NO.8 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
The network contains 500 client computers that run Windows 8.All of the client computers connect
to the Internet by using a web proxy.
You deploy a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.Server1 has the DNS Server
server role installed.
You configure all of the client computers to use Server1 as their primary DNS server.
You need to prevent Server1 from attempting to resolve Internet host names for the client
computers.
What should you do on Server1?
A. Create a primary zone named "root".
B. Create a primary zone named "GlobalNames".
C. Create a forwarder that points to 169.254.0.1.
D. Create a primary zone named ".".
Answer: A


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C_TAW12_71 SAP Certified Development Associate - ABAP with SAP NetWeaver 7.02

Solution: SAP NetWeaver
Delivery Methods: Certification
Duration: 180
Level: Associate
Sub-solution: Data Integrator Exam
Component: SAP Application Overview
Exam: - 80 questions, PDF Link, Cut Score 64
Product Group: Platform
Languages: German, English, Spanish, Japanese, Korean, Russian, Chinese


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Exam Name: SAP Certfied Development Associate - ABAP with SAP NetWeaver 7.02
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NO.1 Size of Integer.
A. 8 bytes
B. 6 bytes
C. 4 bytes
D. Assigns as you declare the value.
Answer: C


NO.2 When is the authorization of user checked for entering data.
A. When entered.
B. At selection screen
C. At selection screen Output
D. End of page.
Answer: B



NO.3 What is defined in ABAP Dictionary. (3 answer)
A. Type tools.
B. Transparent tables.
C. Domains.
D. Internal tables
E. Methods
Answer: ABC


NO.4 There are two classes CL_SUPER and CL_SUB. Class CL_SUPER has method say
SUPER_METHOD and CL_SUB has a method SUB_METHOD.[This q gave me confidence and put me
into confusion!!....what is wrong (TRICKY thing is they dint mention CL_SUB is inherited from
CL_SUPER )].
DATA: GO_SUPER type ref to CL_SUPER,
GO_SUB type ref to CL_SUB.
A. GO_SUPER->SUPER_METHOD.
B. GO_SUPER->SUB_METHOD.(i CHOSE THIS BUT PLEASE READ THE QWELL)
C. GO_SUB->SUB_METHOD.
D. GO_SUB->SUPER_METHOD.
Answer: A



NO.5 When you press Double_Click, What will happen.
A. Handler class.
B. Handler method.
C. event handler class method triggers
D. 2 more options.
Answer: C

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NO.6 In a table, when buffering settings are switched on and buffering style is single,What would
be the option .
A. SELECT SINGLE.
B. SELECT SINGLE...... UPDATE
C. SELECT... LOOP
D. One more option
Answer: A

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NO.7 What are the components of ABAP Workbench.(3 answer)
A. Function builder.
B. Class Builder
C. Screen Painter
D. Two more options.
Answer: ABC


NO.8 Which of the following part of SAP business suite. (3 Answers)
A. SAP Design By one
B. SAP Design All
C. Product life cycle management
D. ERP
E. CRM
Answer: CDE

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2015年5月7日星期四

M2110-670 Study Guide, C2010-509 Exam Cost

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Exam Code: M2110-670
Exam Name: IBM SVP Primary Support Provider Mastery Test v1
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NO.1 What does the command query inclexcl show?
A. Details of which files are backed up.
B. The specific order in which files are backed up.
C. Which users have restore privileges for specific files.
D. The include/exclude statements in the order they will be processed.
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is compatible with client-side deduplication?
A. SSL
B. NDMP
C. encryption
D. LAN-free backup
Answer: B

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Explanation:
When you configure client-side data deduplication, the following requirements must be met:
*The client and server must be at version 6.2.0 or later.
*(not D)Client-side deduplication cannot be used in combination with LAN-free backups.
*(not C)Files that are intended for deduplication must not be encrypted. Encrypted files
and files from encrypted file systems cannot be deduplicated.
Etc.

NO.3 A storage pool contains backup data from several clients and has collocation by node enabled.
If collocation is disabled by setting collocation to No, what is the immediate effect on files already
stored in the storage pool?
A. There is no immediate effect on files that are already stored.
B. A reclamation process is immediately started to remove the collocated files.
C. All collocated backup data is deleted, and clients are required to perform a full backup.
D. A migration process is automatically started to move the collocated files to the copy pool.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which level of IBM Tivoli Storage Manager administrator authority includes the ability to
restore node data from a remote system to a local system?
A. storage
B. system
C. operator
D. client access
Answer: C

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Explanation:
The Backup Operators group allows users to back up and restore files regardless of whether they
have read or write access to the files. Since this group has a limited set of user rights, some functions
are not available to members of the Backup Operators group.

NO.5 What can be done so that a data center can maintain highly available restore and recovery
capabilities across data centers?
A. Use node replication.
B. Use active-data pools.
C. Put the storage pools on shared SAN volumes.
D. Use Disaster Recovery Manager to automate a server rebuild if needed.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
The Disaster Recovery Manager (DRM)
The TSM(Tivoli StorageManager)Disaster Recovery Manager is a feature that is included
with TSM Extended Edition andit is the part of the TSM application that can be used to
assist with the management of off-sitedisaster recovery.
Reference:A Brief Introduction to IBM Tivoli StorageManager Disaster Recovery Manager

NO.6 There is a requirement to provide hot backups for a physical machine running Microsoft
Exchange Server 2010. What is a prerequisite?
A. Update the VSSPOLICY in the dsm.opt file to specify a management class.
B. Install IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Mail on the same system as the Exchange server.
C. Update power shell cmdlets to include the IP address of the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager server.
D. Stop the Exchange host controller service, start the incremental backup, and start the Exchange
server.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which two types of server tasks are shown in the Operations Center?
A. active
B. db reorgs
C. encrypted
D. completed
E. missed schedules
Answer: A,E

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Explanation:
A:TSM Servers The status indicator shows whether the Tivoli Storage Manager servers that are
managed by the Operations Center are available to provide data protection services to clients. E:TSM
Clients A client is considered to be at risk if a problem occurs during its most recent scheduled
backup, or during a backup that starts within a specified time interval. The term backup also includes
archive operations for TivoliStorage Manager for Enterprise Resource Planning clients. Use the
information that is shown in the TSM Clients section to check for failed or missed backups and to
determine whether backup schedules are running as expected.

NO.8 What additional level of security can be used during the transfer of data from client and server?
A. encryption
B. compression
C. deduplication
D. data shredding
Answer: A

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Explanation:
You can encrypt the data as well.

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NO.1 Your company uses Office 365. You need to identify which users do NOT have a Microsoft
Exchange Online license assigned to their user account.
Which Windows PowerShell cmdlet should you use?
A. Get-ManagementRoleAssignment
B. Get-User
C. Get-RoleGroupMember
D. Get-LogonStatistics
E. Get-RemovedMailbox
F. Get-MSOLContact
G. Get-Recipient
H. Get-Mailbox
I. Get-Group
J. Get-MailboxStatistics
K. Get-MSOLUser
L. Get-MailContact
Answer: K

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NO.2 A company deploys an Office 365 tenant. You assign the roles to users as shown in the following
table:
User3 must be able to monitor the health of the Exchange Online service. You must use the principle
of least privilege to assign permissions to User3.
You need to assign permissions to User3.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Assign User3 the service administrator role in Office 365.
B. Sign in to the Office 365 portal as User1.
C. Sign in to the Office 365 portal as User2.
D. Grant User3 administrative permissions in Exchange Online.
E. Assign User3 the global administrator role in Office 365.
Answer: A,B,D

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Explanation:
Only the global administrator can delegate service administrator role.
http://onlinehelp.microsoft.com/en-in/office365-enterprises/ff637584.asp

NO.3 You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. You configure new user accounts
for User1 and User2. User1 has an on-premises mailbox. User2 has an Office 365 mailbox.
Each user must be able to view the availability of the other user.
You need to ascertain whether users can share their free/busy information.
What should you use?
A. Transport Reliability IP Probe (TRIPP Tool)
B. Microsoft Remote Connectivity Analyzer Tool
C. Business Connectivity Services
D. Windows Azure Active Directory Rights Management
Answer: B

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NO.4 Your company has an Office 365 subscription. You need to add the label "External" to the
subject line of each email message received by your organization from an external sender.
What should you do?
A. From the Exchange Control Panel, add a MailTip.
B. From the Forefront Online Protection Administration Center, set the footer for outbound email.
C. Run the Enable-InboxRule cmdlet.
D. From the Exchange Control Panel, run the New Rule wizard.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Option B also will do if that mention "Inbound email". But here it says outbound email, so D is the
current answer.

NO.5 HOTSPOT
The legal department in your organization creates standardized disclaimers for all of their email
messages. The disclaimers explain that any transmissions that are received in error should be
reported back to the sender. You track any confidential documents that are attached to email
messages.
Your security team reports that an employee may have mistakenly sent an email message that
contained confidential information.
You need to identify whether the email message included the disclaimer and whether it contained
confidential information.
Which two options should you configure? To answer, select the appropriate objects in the answer
area.
Answer:

NO.6 Contoso uses Office 365 for collaboration services. You implement single sign-on (SSO) with
Office 365 by using Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS).
You need to implement Windows Azure multi-factor authentication.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. On the AD FS federation server, run PhoneFactorAgentSetup.exe.
B. On the AD FS Federation server, run WindowsAzureSDK-x64.exe.
C. On the AD FS Federation server, run the Windows PowerShell cmdlet Register-
AdfsAuthenticationProvider.
D. On the AD FS Federation server, run FsConfigWizard.exe.
E. Run the Active Directory Domains and Trusts MMC snap-in. Register Windows Azure Multi-Factor
Authentication Server as an additional authentication provider.
F. Run the Windows Azure Multi-Factor Authentication Server Authentication Configuration Wizard.
Answer: B,C,F

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NO.7 An organization implements single sign-on (5SO) for use with Office 365 services. You install an
Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) proxy server.
Users report that they are unable to authenticate. You launch the Event Viewer and view the event
information shown in the following screen shot:
You need to ensure that users can authenticate to Office 365.
What should you do?
A. Re-enter the credentials used to establish the trust.
B. Verify the federation server proxy is trusted by the federation service.
C. Re-install the Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) certificate for the federation service.
D. Verify network connectivity between the Federation Service Proxy and federation server.
Answer: A

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NO.8 You use a centralized identity management system as a source of authority for user account
information.
You export a list of new user accounts to a file on a daily basis.
Your company uses a local Active Directory for storing user accounts for on-premises solutions.
You are configuring the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool.
New user accounts must be created in both the local Active Directory and Office 365.
You must import user account data into Office 365 daily.
You need to import the new users. What should you do?
A. Use the Office 365 admin center to import the file.
B. Create a Windows PowerShell script to import account data from the file into Active Directory.
C. Use the Windows Azure Management Portal to import the file.
D. Create a Windows PowerShell script that uses the MSOnline module to import account data from
the file.
Answer: B

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NO.1 You work as the Network Administrator for XYZ CORP. The company has a Unix-based network. You
want to set some terminal characteristics and environment variables. Which of the following Unix
configuration files can you use to accomplish the task?
A. /etc/sysconfig/routed
B. /proc/net
C. /etc/sysconfig/network-scripts/ifcfg-interface
D. /etc/sysconfig/init
Answer: D

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www.we-are-secure.com. He wants to use Kismet as a wireless sniffer to sniff the Weare-secure network.
Which of the following IEEE-based traffic can be sniffed with Kismet?
A. 802.11g
B. 802.11n
C. 802.11b
D. 802.11a
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.3 John works as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based
network. John is working as a root user on the Linux operating system. He wants to forward all the kernel
messages to the remote host having IP address 192.168.0.1. Which of the following changes will he
perform in the syslog.conf file to accomplish the task?
A. kern.* @192.168.0.1
B. !*.* @192.168.0.1
C. !kern.* @192.168.0.1
D. *.* @192.168.0.1
Answer: A

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two)
A. nc 208.100.2.25 23
B. nmap -v -O www.we-are-secure.com
C. nc -v -n 208.100.2.25 80
D. nmap -v -O 208.100.2.25
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 You work as a Network Administrator for XYZ CORP. The company has a Windows Server 2008
network environment. The network is configured as a Windows Active Directory-based single forest single
domain network. You have installed a Windows Server 2008 computer. You have configured auditing on
this server. The client computers of the company use the Windows XP Professional operating system.
You want to audit each event that is related to a user managing an account in the user database on the
computer where the auditing is configured. To accomplish the task, you have enabled the Audit account
management option on the server. Which of the following events can be audited by enabling this audit
option.?
A. Access to an Active Directory object
B. Change of password for a user account
C. Addition of a user account to a group
D. Creation of a user account
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.6 You work as a Network Auditor for XYZ CORP. The company has a Windows-based network. While
auditing the company's network, you are facing problems in searching the faults and other entities that
belong to it. Which of the following risks may occur due to the existence of these problems?
A. Residual risk
B. Inherent risk
C. Secondary risk
D. Detection risk
Answer: D

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NO.7 John works as a Security Professional. He is assigned a project to test the security of www.we-
are-secure.com. John wants to get the information of all network connections and listening ports in the
numerical form. Which of the following commands will he use?
A. netstat -e
B. netstat r
C. netstat -s
D. netstat an
Answer: D

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NO.8 Sarah works as a Web Developer for XYZ CORP. She is creating a Web site for her company. Sarah
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C. Use Cascading Style Sheet (CSS).
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Answer: C

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NO.1 An administrator has a new license file for Avaya Aura® conferencing 7.
Which step should the administrator take to install the new license file?
A. Log onto the Communications Manager CDOM, then go to license and copy and paste the new
license file.
B. Log onto the Conferencing 7, then go to Element Manager and upload the new license file.
C. Log onto System Manager, then go to License and upload the new license file.
D. Log onto the System Manager CDOM, then go to Security and copy and paste the new license
file.
Answer: B

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6. The Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 system has 10 components.
Which two components are parts of the Web Server Group? (Choose two.)
A. Web Collaboration Management Server (WCMS)
B. Avaya Media Server (AMS)
C. Document Conversion Server (DCS)
D. Application Server (AS)
Answer: A,B

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7. During installation of the Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 software, which prompt will the installer
receive?
A. The staging username
B. The deployment type or staging file to be used
C. The operations file be used
D. The operations file or deployment name to be used
Answer: B

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8. The conferencing moderator dialed into the conference room successfully using moderator
code,
and was also able to successfully launch Collaboration Agent. However, the web conference could
not be launched from the Collaboration Agent.
What is causing this problem?
A. During the conference user provisioning, the conference administrator did not enable the Web
Conferencing Server feature specific to this user.
B. The web conferencing URL was not added to the hosts file on the Media Server.
C. The Web Conference Server Was not added or configured in Provisioning manager.
D. The Document Conversation Server was not configured.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which SIP Monitoring field must be selected to allow the System Manager to manage
bandwidth
on the Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 SIP Entity?
A. SIP Link Monitoring
B. Supports Call Admission Control
C. Primary Session Manager Bandwidth Association
D. SIP Domain
Answer: A

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NO.3 When viewing alarms in the browser, what is the default order that alarms appear?
A. Warning, Minor, Major, Critical
B. Major, Critical, Minor, Warning
C. Minor, Warning, Critical, Major
D. Critical, Major, Minor, Warning
Answer: A

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NO.4 On the Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 system, which two actions are involved in configuring the
Media Server and Media Server cluster? (Choose two)
A. Log onto Provisioning Manager and configure it under “Conference of Service”.
B. Log onto the EM console, and configure it in the sub menu “Media Server Resource” under the
Feature Server Elements.
C. Log on to Provisioning Manager and configure “Media Server Resource” under System
Management Tab.
D. Log onto WCS server and configure the Media Resource in the Collaboration Agent window.
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the requirement for Avaya Media Servers to be grouped into an Avaya Media Server
Cluster?
A. They must share the system default setting.
B. They must share common power supply.
C. They must share the same physical location.
D. They must share the same server name.
Answer: A

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Storage.
The VHDs must be optimized for random read/write operation. The video files must be optimized for
sequential access.
You need to recommend storage types for storing the VHDs and video files.
Which two storage types should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose two.)
A. Store VHDs in Windows Azure page blob storage.
B. Store VHDs in Windows Azure block blob storage.
C. Store video files in Windows Azure page blob storage.
D. Store video files in Windows Azure block blob storage.
Answer: AD

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NO.2 You are designing a strategy for synchronizing two geographically disparate SQL Azure databases. A
database named DB1 is located in North America. A database named DB2 is located in Asia. DB2
contains a subset of the tables in DB1.
You need to recommend an approach for bidirectionally synchronizing the databases each day.
What should you recommend?
A. Use SQL Azure Data Sync.
B. Use custom Microsoft Sync Framework metadata.
C. Use a Microsoft Sync Framework Partial Participant.
D. Use a Microsoft Sync Framework file synchronization provider.
Answer: A

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NO.3 You are designing a Windows Azure application that will store data.
You have the following requirements:
¡¤The data storage system must support the storage of more than 500 GB of data
¡¤Data retrieval must be possible from a large number of paralll threads without threads blocking each
other.
You need to recommend an approach for storing data.
What should you recommend?
A. Use Windows Azure Queues.
B. Use Windows Live Mesh 2011.
C. Use a single SQL Azure database.
D. Use Windows Azure Table storage.
Answer: D

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NO.4 You are designing a strategy for synchronizing a SQL Azure database and multiple remote Microsoft
SQL Server 2008 databases.
The SQL Azure database contains many tables that have circular foreign key relationships.
You need to recommend an approach for ensuring that all changes in the remote databases synchronize
with the SQL Azure database.
What should you recommend?
A. Use SQL Azure Data Sync Service.
B. Use SQL Server replication.
C. Use SQL Server backup and restore.
D. Use SQL Server database snapshots.
Answer: A

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NO.5 You are planning the deployment of a SQL Azure database. Your company has a Volume Licensing
Agreement for Microsoft SQL Server 2008.
The SQL Azure database must maintain a monthly availability of 99.9%.
You need to recommend an approach for minimizing the monthly expenses associated with the SQL
Azure database.
What should you recommend?
A. Add a processor license to the existing SQL Server licensing agreement.
B. Purchase a Windows Azure consumption platform subscription.
C. Purchase a SQL Server Services Provider Licensing Agreement (SPLA).
D. Purchase a SQL Server Web license to extend the existing SQL Server licensing agreement.
Answer: B

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NO.6 You are designing a Windows Azure application that will provide online backup storage for very large
media files.
The application must be capable of storing an average of 1 GB of data for each user. The application must
provide random read/write access.
You need to recommend a durable data storage solution.
What should you recommend?
A. Use a Windows Azure Drive.
B. Use Windows Azure page blob storage.
C. Use Windows Azure block blob storage.
D. Use local storage on a Windows Azure instance.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following software products or technologies would you consider yourself proficient in?
Choose all that apply.
A. Windows Server 2008
B. Windows Server 2008 R2
C. SQL Server 2008
D. SQL Server 2008 R2
E. Internet Information Server (IIS)
F. Visual Studio 2010
G. Windows Communication Foundation
H. .NET Framework 4
Answer: A

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NO.8 You are designing a web service that will be hosted in Windows Azure. The web service will accept and
store structured and semi-structured data.
The web service must meet the following requirements:
¡¤Update all data within a single transation.
¡¤Enforce the data structure for structured data within the data store
You need to recommend an approach for storing the data.
What should you recommend?
A. Use Windows Azure Queues.
B. Use a single SQL Azure database.
C. Use a single Windows Azure Drive.
D. Use Windows Azure Table storage.
Answer: B

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2015年5月6日星期三

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NO.1 You send a quote to a customer, who accepts the quote.
You need to complete the sale and collect payment.
What should you do?
A. Convert the quote to an order, and convert the order to an invoice.
B. Close the quote as invoiced.
C. Close the quote as won.
D. Convert the quote to an invoice, and convert the invoice to an order.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Ref:http://rc.crm.dynamics.com/RC/2011/en-us/online/5.1_CTP/quotesroutingdiagram.aspx

NO.2 Two active case records are related to the same issue but have nothing else in common.
Your manager asks you to make an association between the records.
What should you do?
A. Merge the two case records.
B. Reference the case ID of the other case in the case ID field of each case.
C. Add one case to the sub-grid on the other case for similar cases.
D. Reference the case ID of the other case in the notes field of each case.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Your manager needs an analysis that contains four views and three charts.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose
two.
A. Create one dashboard.
B. Create a Report Wizard Report.
C. Create an SSRS report.
D. Create two dashboards.
Answer: C,D

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NO.4 What is the purpose of the business process flow in the opportunity form?
A. To show other users who are collaborating on the opportunity
B. To provide a sales script for the salesperson to use when speaking to a potential customer
C. To show the current stage in the sales lifecycle
D. To enforce entry of mandatory fields
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Ref:http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn531164.aspx

NO.5 You are a marketing specialist. You receive an email message from a prospective client who was
referred to your company by a current client.
You need to add the client to Microsoft Dynamics CRM so that a salesperson can follow up with the
potential client.
After tracking the email message, what should you do?
A. Convert the email message to an opportunity, and assign it to a salesperson.
B. Convert the email message to a lead, and assign it to a salesperson.
C. Create a task, and set the Regarding field to the existing customer who referred the potential
client.
D. Create a new account for the potential client and assign a follow-up phone call activity to a
salesperson.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Ref:https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-gb/library/gg328442.aspx

NO.6 You need to add a product brochure to Microsoft Dynamics CRM so that users can send the
brochure via email to potential customers. Which record type should you add the brochure to?
A. Sales literature
B. Competitor
C. Product
D. Marketing list
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Ref:http://crmbook.powerobjects.com/basics/microsoft-dynamics-crm-salesprocess/working-with-
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NO.7 You create a new entitlement.
What is the initial status of the entitlement?
A. Active
B. Waiting
C. Created
D. Draft
Answer: A

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NO.8 You need to specify the number of support hours a customer will receive.
What should you create?
A. A service activity
B. A service level agreement (SLA)
C. An entitlement
D. A contract template
Answer: C

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Ref:http://www.neudesic.com/blog/crm-entitlements/

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NO.1 Which of the following activities integrates sales order creation with materials management?
A. Creating a material document
B. Posting a goods issue
C. Performing an availability check
D. Creating a material reservation
Answer: C

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NO.2 What are the results of processing the payment program? (Choose two)
A. Vendors' open items are cleared.
B. Payment documents are posted.
C. The goods receipt/invoice receipt (GR/IR) account is cleared.
D. Revenues are posted to Profitability Analysis (CO-PA).
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 You are setting the control parameters in the initial screen for material requirements planning
(MRP).
Which control parameter defines the planning type as regenerative or net change planning?
A. Opening period
B. Processing key
C. Lot size key
D. MRP group
Answer: B

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Topic 8, Order to Cash

NO.4 Your organization is implementing Financial Accounting in SAP ERP.
What information would you give them regarding company codes?
A. A plant can be assigned to more than one company code.
B. A company code can have multiple leading ledgers.
C. A company code can be assigned to more than one controlling area.
D. A company code has one operating chart of accounts.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which type of business transaction integrates with Financial Accounting?
A. A direct activity allocation
B. A commitment
C. A goods issue
D. An assessment
Answer: C

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NO.6 SAP Enterprise Asset Management uses technical objects.
Which technical object represents an individual physical object that is maintained as an autonomous
unit?
A. Equipment
B. Work center
C. Serial number
D. Bill of material
Answer: A

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NO.7 How does management accounting integrate with manufacturing?
A. Labor rates, defined in the cost center, valuate manufacturing operations.
B. The combination of cost center and activity type valuates manufacturing operations.
C. Cost center overhead represents a direct cost to the manufacturing order.
D. Standard cost estimates determine the actual costs for manufacturing orders.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which SAP NetWeaver Business Warehouse component provides flexible reporting and analysis
tools that can be used for strategic analysis?
A. Business Web Application Design
B. Business Explorer
C. Data Warehousing Workbench
D. Business Content
Answer: B

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NO.1 What is the maximum number of files that can be hosted on FileMaker Server 13?
A. 100
B. 125
C. 250
D. 999
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which two formatting options can be controlled by a layout's theme? (Choose two.)
A. The anchoring / resizing settings for a tab control
B. Conditional formatting for a value in a number field
C. The text color of a button when tapped in FileMaker Go
D. The inner shadow of a portal that is In Focus in Browse mode
E. The background color of a record in List View when a mouse pointer hovers over it
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 Which two techniques could be used to successfully generate the data points for a pie chart?
(Choose two.)
A. Concatenate multiple number fields from the current record into a return-delimited list.
B. Set up multiple data series, each of which points to a number field in the current record.
C. Specify a summary field from a related set of records as the data series and put the chart in a
Subsummary layout part.
D. Specify a summary field from the current found set as the data series and put the chart in a
Leading Grand Summary layout part.
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 What is the maximum number of recursive calls that can be made utilizing a custom function
in FileMaker Pro 13 Advanced?
A. 10,000
B. 32,000
C. 50,000
D. 64.000
Answer: C

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NO.5 A table in a FileMaker 13 solution has a text field CompanyName. The following field
validation options are set for this field:
-Validate data in this field only during data entry -Allow user to override during data entry -Require
not empty -Display custom message if validation fails
A user imports a set of records into this table. Some records have no value in the CompanyName
field. What will occur?
A. All of the records will be imported, No error message will be displayed.
B. The user will see the custom error message, but the import will continue if the user overrides the
error.
C. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see the specified
custom message.
D. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see an error dialog
from the FileMaker Pro application stating that some records could not be imported due to errors,
along with a count of those records.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which three field options may be set for a shadow field from an External ODBC Data Source?
(Choose three.)
A. Validation: not empty
B. Validation: unique value
C. Validation: existing value
D. Auto-enter creation timestamp
E. Auto-enter serial number, on creation
F. Storage: automatically create indexes as needed
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.7 Which two FileMaker Pro 13 objects will display data contents even if unrelated to the current
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A. Merge variable
B. Indexed timestamp field
C. A text field from a shadow table
D. Globally stored number field placed in a portal
E. A container field defined with the Store as reference only option enabled
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FirstName & " " & LastName
FirstName and LastName are text fields in the same table. The option Do not evaluate if all
referenced fields are empty is unchecked. The option Do not replace existing value of field (if any) is
checked.
Under which two circumstances will the value of the calculation be inserted into the FirstLast field?
(Choose two.)
A. A record is first created
B. Each time the value of the FirstName or LastName field is modified
C. A user selects the menu item Records> Relookup Field Contents
D. Any field value on the record is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
E. The FirstName or LastName field is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
Answer: A,E

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NO.1 What is the most significant differentiator of Maximo for HSE?
A. Lower operation cost and improved efficiency and service delivery.
B. Ability to integrate safety and operational related processes.
C. Health, Safety and Environment and Work & Asset Management all utilizing the same physical
asset structures
D. Fully support a smart meter and enforce Service Level Agreement
Answer: C

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NO.2 When you talk to a perspective customer who owns both IT assets and physical assets, what is
the most compelling reason for the customer to consider IBM Asset Management?
A. With IBM Asset Management, you can manage both IT assets and physical assets on the same
platform
B. With IBM Asset Management, you can manage IT asset in all life cycles
C. With IBM Asset Management, you can manage physical assets and can manage IT asset too with a
third party solution.
D. With IBM Asset Management, you can implement supply chain management if you have SCCD
installed.
Answer: A

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NO.3 When you talk to a prospective client, what you would mention to the client?
A. You may need two separate platforms to manage IT assets and enterprise assets, because SCCD
and Maximo cannot run on a single platform.
B. You may not need SCCD to manage IT-enabled assets.
C. We can quantity return on investment (ROI) with Tivoli BVA tool, if customer only installs SCCD.
D. IBM is the only one that can provide service and asset management for both the physical and the
digital infrastructure across the enterprise.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which is NOT a challenges for life sciences industry?
A. Rising healthcare costs put pressure on cost and favoring generic drugs.
B. The industry is entering a wave of patent expiration, in which $80 billion in drug revenue comes off
patent.
C. Increasing Global Regulatory Compliance pressures delaying new drugs and increasing focus on
Post Market Surveillance
D. Increasing number of employees who are mobile.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Who should care about reducing facility costs?
A. Everyone in the organization
B. Nobody except CEOs
C. All executives and line managers
D. Finance executives, Real Estate and Facility Executives, and Sustainability Executives
E. Only CEOs and CFOs
Answer: D

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NO.6 IBM CEO Study surveys many CEOs and public sector leaders to understand key factors that
influence their organizations. In the latest study published in 2012, the first three factors that
influence their organization are?
A. Real Estate Management, Asset Management, and Portfolio Management
B. People Skills, Innovation capabilities, and Environment Issues
C. Technology, Marketing Factor, and Economy
D. Technology, Globalization, and Environment Sustainability
E. Energy Management, Environmental Sustainability, and Technology
F. Technology factor, people skills, and marketing factor
Answer: F

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Reference: http://www.brandchannel.com/images/papers/536_IBMGlobalCEOs.PDF?sp_id=1688

NO.7 Maximo for Life Sciences is a solution for life sciences customer to manage their critical assets.
Which other Maximo solution is usually integrated with Maximo for Life Sciences?
A. Maximo for Utilities
B. Maximo for Linear Asset
C. Maximo for Calibration
D. All of the above solutions
Answer: C

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NO.8 Identify the CORRECT key benefits for EAM customers to install SCCD.
A. SCCD helps customers to manage non-IT assets
B. Both Maximo and SCCD run on the same platform to reduce complexity and simplify asset
management from end to end.
C. Decreases ROI because with SCCD and Maximo customers can manage all assets on a single
platform.
D. SCCD helps Maximo customers to manage linear assets.
Answer: B

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