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Exam Code: EX200
Exam Name: Red Hat Certified System Administrator -
RHCSA
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NO.1 Add 3 users: harry, natasha, tom.
The requirements: The Additional
group of the two users: harry, Natasha is the admin group. The user:
tom's
login shell should be non-interactive.
Answer:
# useradd -G admin
harry
# useradd -G admin natasha
# useradd -s /sbin/nologin tom
# id
harry;id Natasha (Show additional group)
# cat /etc/passwd
(Show the login
shell)
OR
# system-config-users
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Real Questions
NO.2 Configure your Host Name, IP Address,
Gateway and DNS.
Host name:
station.domain40.example.com
/etc/sysconfig/network
hostname=abc.com
hostname
abc.com
IP
Address:172.24.40.40/24
Gateway172.24.40.1
DNS:172.24.40.1
Answer:
#
cd /etc/syscofig/network-scripts/
# ls
# vim ifcfg-eth0 (Configure IP
Address, Gateway and DNS)
IPADDR=172.24.40.40
GATEWAY=172.24.40.1
DNS1=172.24.40.1
# vim
/etc/sysconfig/network
(Configure Host Name)
HOSTNAME=
station.domain40.example.com
OR
Graphical
Interfaces:
System->Preference->Network Connections (Configure IP
Address, Gateway and DNS) Vim
/etc/sysconfig/network
(Configure Host
Name)
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2015年7月20日星期一
VCP550D latest VMware certification exam questions and answers published
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If you do not hold a current VCP certification, passing either the VCP550 or VCP510 exam will earn VCP5-DCV certification if you have successfully completed an approved qualifying course.
If you are already VCP certified, passing the VCP550 will recertify you.
If you are already VCP5-DCV certified, passing either the VCP550 or VCP550D will recertify you
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Exam Code: VCP550D
Exam Name: VMware Certified Professional 5 - Data Center Virtualization Delta Exam
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
VMware VCP550D Bootcamp 270 Q&As
Updated: 07-20,2015
VCP550D Exam PDF Detail : VCP550D Bootcamp
NO.1 Which minor badge scores are used to calculate the Health score in vCenter Operations
Manager?
A. Time remaining, Capacity remaining, Stress
B. Workload, Anomalies, Faults
C. Stress, Faults, Risk
D. Reclaimable Waste, Density
Answer: B
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NO.2 An administrator is evaluating whether to deploy vCenter Server on a Windows server or on a
vCenter Server appliance. The administrator has the following requirements:
A web browser will be utilized to manage the vSphere environment.
16 ESXi hosts will be deployed.
Licenses must be shared with a vCenter Server at another site.
An external Oracle 10g database server will be used to host the vCenter Server database.
Why will the administrator need to deploy vCenter Server on a Windows server?
A. Linked Mode is a requirement for the solution.
B. Oracle 10g is a requirement for the solution.
C. The vSphere web client is a requirement for the solution.
D. Management of more than 5 hosts is a requirement for the solution.
Answer: A
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NO.3 -- Exhibit --- Exhibit -
What action should the vSphere administrator take to allow for a new vApp to be created in the
cluster?
A. Enable Distributed Resource Scheduling on the cluster
B. Create a Resource Pool in the cluster, and create the vApp in the Resource Pool
C. Enable High Availability on the cluster
D. Create a new Datacenter, and create the vApp in the new Datacenter
Answer: A
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NO.4 A vSphere administrator has a 4 host DRS cluster with plans to grow to 8 hosts. During a
vMotion migration, the following error is displayed: -- Exhibit -
-- Exhibit -
What action could be taken to resolve the issue?
A. Ensure all hosts in the cluster contain only Intel or AMD CPUs
B. Choose Reset all to Default in the CPU Identification Mask of the VM
C. Verify and correct the vmkernel port settings for the vMotion network
D. Configure the DRS Migration Threshold to the most conservative setting
Answer: B
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NO.5 A security audit has revealed that a virtual machine on vSwitch1 is receiving all traffic sent to
the virtual switch, violating corporate policy. The vSphere administrator examines the properties for
vSwitch1, as shown in the exhibit:
-- Exhibit --- Exhibit -
Which configuration explains why the virtual machine is receiving all traffic sent to vSwitch1?
A. The Production port group has the Promiscuous Mode policy set to Accept.
B. vSwitch1 has the Promiscuous Mode policy set to Reject.
C. The Network Failure Detection policy on the Production port group is set to Link Status plus
Beaconing.
D. The Network Failure Detection policy on vSwitch1 is set to Link Status only.
Answer: A
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NO.6 Why would an administrator be unable to locate an IP address for a vSphere vmnic uplink?
A. IP addresses are defined at the virtual nic level, not the vmnic level.
B. ESXi host vmnics communicate with physical switches on layer 3.
C. ESXi hosts use NAT translation to mask the actual vmnic IP address.
D. The IP address of the vmnic is not shown in the vSphere Client.
Answer: A
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NO.7 During a physical network reconfiguration, an ESXi host briefly lost connection to the
management network. High Availability (HA) began powering off the virtual machines residing on the
affected host to be restarted on an unaffected host in the cluster.
Which setting should the administrator configure to prevent this behavior in the future?
A. Host isolation response
B. Host monitoring
C. VM monitoring
D. Admission control
Answer: A
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NO.8 A vSphere administrator has been using vSphere in evaluation mode and now wants to deploy
an environment that provides the same features.
Which edition of vSphere provides similar functionality to evaluation mode?
A. Enterprise Plus
B. Enterprise
C. Standard
D. Essentials
Answer: A
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There are two exams associated with the VMware Certified Professional 5 – Data Center Virtualization (VCP5-DCV) Certification. Select the appropriate exam for your situation based on the information below and within the exam blueprint.
If you do not hold a current VCP certification, passing either the VCP550 or VCP510 exam will earn VCP5-DCV certification if you have successfully completed an approved qualifying course.
If you are already VCP certified, passing the VCP550 will recertify you.
If you are already VCP5-DCV certified, passing either the VCP550 or VCP550D will recertify you
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In the information era, IT industry is catching more and more attention. In the society which has a galaxy of talents, there is still lack of IT talents. Many companies need IT talents, and generally, they investigate IT talents's ability in according to what IT related authentication certificate they have. So having some IT related authentication certificate is welcomed by many companies. But these authentication certificate are not very easy to get. VMware VCP550D is a quite difficult certification exams. Although a lot of people participate in VMware VCP550D exam, the pass rate is not very high.
ITCertMaster guarantee exam success rate of 100% ratio, except no one. You choose ITCertMaster, and select the training you want to start, you will get the best resources with market and reliability assurance.
Exam Code: VCP550D
Exam Name: VMware Certified Professional 5 - Data Center Virtualization Delta Exam
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
VMware VCP550D Bootcamp 270 Q&As
Updated: 07-20,2015
VCP550D Exam PDF Detail : VCP550D Bootcamp
NO.1 Which minor badge scores are used to calculate the Health score in vCenter Operations
Manager?
A. Time remaining, Capacity remaining, Stress
B. Workload, Anomalies, Faults
C. Stress, Faults, Risk
D. Reclaimable Waste, Density
Answer: B
VMware VCP550D exam prep VCP550D test questions VCP550D
NO.2 An administrator is evaluating whether to deploy vCenter Server on a Windows server or on a
vCenter Server appliance. The administrator has the following requirements:
A web browser will be utilized to manage the vSphere environment.
16 ESXi hosts will be deployed.
Licenses must be shared with a vCenter Server at another site.
An external Oracle 10g database server will be used to host the vCenter Server database.
Why will the administrator need to deploy vCenter Server on a Windows server?
A. Linked Mode is a requirement for the solution.
B. Oracle 10g is a requirement for the solution.
C. The vSphere web client is a requirement for the solution.
D. Management of more than 5 hosts is a requirement for the solution.
Answer: A
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NO.3 -- Exhibit --- Exhibit -
What action should the vSphere administrator take to allow for a new vApp to be created in the
cluster?
A. Enable Distributed Resource Scheduling on the cluster
B. Create a Resource Pool in the cluster, and create the vApp in the Resource Pool
C. Enable High Availability on the cluster
D. Create a new Datacenter, and create the vApp in the new Datacenter
Answer: A
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NO.4 A vSphere administrator has a 4 host DRS cluster with plans to grow to 8 hosts. During a
vMotion migration, the following error is displayed: -- Exhibit -
-- Exhibit -
What action could be taken to resolve the issue?
A. Ensure all hosts in the cluster contain only Intel or AMD CPUs
B. Choose Reset all to Default in the CPU Identification Mask of the VM
C. Verify and correct the vmkernel port settings for the vMotion network
D. Configure the DRS Migration Threshold to the most conservative setting
Answer: B
VMware original questions VCP550D test VCP550D Exam Cram VCP550D test answers
NO.5 A security audit has revealed that a virtual machine on vSwitch1 is receiving all traffic sent to
the virtual switch, violating corporate policy. The vSphere administrator examines the properties for
vSwitch1, as shown in the exhibit:
-- Exhibit --- Exhibit -
Which configuration explains why the virtual machine is receiving all traffic sent to vSwitch1?
A. The Production port group has the Promiscuous Mode policy set to Accept.
B. vSwitch1 has the Promiscuous Mode policy set to Reject.
C. The Network Failure Detection policy on the Production port group is set to Link Status plus
Beaconing.
D. The Network Failure Detection policy on vSwitch1 is set to Link Status only.
Answer: A
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NO.6 Why would an administrator be unable to locate an IP address for a vSphere vmnic uplink?
A. IP addresses are defined at the virtual nic level, not the vmnic level.
B. ESXi host vmnics communicate with physical switches on layer 3.
C. ESXi hosts use NAT translation to mask the actual vmnic IP address.
D. The IP address of the vmnic is not shown in the vSphere Client.
Answer: A
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NO.7 During a physical network reconfiguration, an ESXi host briefly lost connection to the
management network. High Availability (HA) began powering off the virtual machines residing on the
affected host to be restarted on an unaffected host in the cluster.
Which setting should the administrator configure to prevent this behavior in the future?
A. Host isolation response
B. Host monitoring
C. VM monitoring
D. Admission control
Answer: A
VMware VCP550D Exam Prep VCP550D PDF VCE VCP550D Exam Cost
NO.8 A vSphere administrator has been using vSphere in evaluation mode and now wants to deploy
an environment that provides the same features.
Which edition of vSphere provides similar functionality to evaluation mode?
A. Enterprise Plus
B. Enterprise
C. Standard
D. Essentials
Answer: A
VMware VCP550D Actual Test VCP550D Practice Test VCP550D Study Guide
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Article Link: http://exam.it2blog.com/2015/03/03/vcp550d-pdf-vce-vcaw510-study-guide/
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Exam 70-346 Topics:
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Plan and implement networking and security in Office 365 (15–20%)
Manage cloud identities (15–20%)
Implement and manage identities by using DirSync (15–20%)
Implement and manage federated identities (single sign-on [SSO]) (15–20%)
Monitor and troubleshoot Office 365 availability and usage (15–20%)
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Exam 70-346 Topics:
Provision Office 365 (15–20%)
Plan and implement networking and security in Office 365 (15–20%)
Manage cloud identities (15–20%)
Implement and manage identities by using DirSync (15–20%)
Implement and manage federated identities (single sign-on [SSO]) (15–20%)
Monitor and troubleshoot Office 365 availability and usage (15–20%)
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reference: http://blog.itexamqa.com/?p=10674
2015年7月19日星期日
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NO.1 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection component enables access to data through ad-hoc
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A. Symantec Protection Center
B. Shared Insight Cache Server
C. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
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Answer: D
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C. Data for each domain is stored in its own separate SEP database.
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B. The security option "Block all traffic until the firewall starts and after the firewall stops" is enabled.
C. A location awareness policy has been configured that applies when the service is stopped.
D. The network card is blocked by a Device Control policy.
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C. Windows 2000
D. Windows 2008 - 64bit OS
Answer: D
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D. set Disable Windows Security Center to Always
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issues. Which two options can the administrator use to improve performance? (Select two.)
A. Enable the option to Trust Files on Remote Computers Running Auto-Protect.
B. Enable the Risk Tracer option.
C. Edit the autoprotect.xml and increase the cache value.
D. Enable the option of Network Cache.
E. Enable the Preserve File Times option.
Answer: A,D
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NO.8 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection Management (SEPM) database option is the default for
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B. On SEPM Installing Microsoft SQL on the same server as the SEPM
C. External to SEPM Using a preexisting Microsoft SQL server in the environment
D. Embedded Using the Microsoft SQL database that comes with the product
Answer: A
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NO.1 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection component enables access to data through ad-hoc
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A. Symantec Protection Center
B. Shared Insight Cache Server
C. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
D. IT Analytics
Answer: D
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NO.2 What is a characteristic of a Symantec Endpoint Protection (SEP) domain?
A. Each domain has its own management server and database.
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C. Data for each domain is stored in its own separate SEP database.
D. Domains share the same management server and database.
Answer: D
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A. The customers need to enable the Smart DHCP option in their firewall policy.
B. The security option "Block all traffic until the firewall starts and after the firewall stops" is enabled.
C. A location awareness policy has been configured that applies when the service is stopped.
D. The network card is blocked by a Device Control policy.
Answer: B
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the administrator consider to alleviate this problem?
A. Ensure that Risk Tracer is disabled.
B. Load Auto-Protect during the startup of SEP.
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D. Modify the policy to use Insight Cache.
Answer: B
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A. Enable the option to Trust Files on Remote Computers Running Auto-Protect.
B. Enable the Risk Tracer option.
C. Edit the autoprotect.xml and increase the cache value.
D. Enable the option of Network Cache.
E. Enable the Preserve File Times option.
Answer: A,D
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NO.8 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection Management (SEPM) database option is the default for
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A. Embedded Using the Sybase SQL Anywhere database that comes with the product
B. On SEPM Installing Microsoft SQL on the same server as the SEPM
C. External to SEPM Using a preexisting Microsoft SQL server in the environment
D. Embedded Using the Microsoft SQL database that comes with the product
Answer: A
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2015年7月16日星期四
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Answer: B
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Reference: ftp://public.dhe.ibm.com/software/ch/pdf/qradar/Vormittag_slides.pdf (slide 23)
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C. 1) AppScan Standard, 2) AppScan Enterprise, 3) AppScan Source
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B. SAM for Mobile appliances provide superior performance, TTV and TCO.
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D. SAM for Mobile provides risk-/context-based access support that's critical for mobile endpoints
outside the client's intranet.
Answer: D
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management
Answer: C,D
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Answer: A
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Answer: A
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Answer: B
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NO.2 A single appliance to collect events and flow data, perform data correlation and rule matching,
report alerts and provide admin capability is called:
A. Flow processor.
B. QFlow Collector.
C. A Combined Flow/Event Appliance.
D. An All-in-One.
Answer: D
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Reference: ftp://public.dhe.ibm.com/software/ch/pdf/qradar/Vormittag_slides.pdf (slide 23)
NO.3 What are the three main solutions within the AppScan portfolio?
A. 1) AppScan Express, 2) AppScan Enterprise, 3) AppScan Static
B. 1) AppScan Standard, 2) AppScan Build, 3) AppScan Dynamic
C. 1) AppScan Standard, 2) AppScan Enterprise, 3) AppScan Source
D. 1) AppScan PenTester, 2) AppScan Developer, 3) AppScan QA
Answer: C
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Reference: http://www-03.ibm.com/software/products/en/appscan
NO.4 IBM SAM for Mobile provides strong protection. When talking to clients about it, what might
you want to work into the discussion?
A. SAM for Mobile can save money for clients with DataPower appliances.
B. SAM for Mobile appliances provide superior performance, TTV and TCO.
C. SAM for Mobile integrates other key IBM security controls (e. g., Trusteer. WorkLight and
MaaS360) to enforce more informed policy-driven access.
D. SAM for Mobile provides risk-/context-based access support that's critical for mobile endpoints
outside the client's intranet.
Answer: D
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NO.5 There are several key integrations of AppScan and other IBM Security solutions. Which answer
shows two of those integrations and their value?
A. Integration with Guardium to identify application vulnerabilities of high value databases;
Integration with Access Manager to protect applications from unauthorized access
B. Integration with IPS to remediate identified vulnerabilities and identify virtual patches; Integration
with Trusteer to identify applications that allow fraud
C. Integration with IPS to remediate identified vulnerabilities and identify virtual patches; Integration
with QRadar to identify application vulnerabilities that contribute to enterprise exposures
D. Integration with QRadar to identify application vulnerabilities that contribute to enterprise
exposures; Integration with Key Lifecycle Manager to provide application encryption key
management
Answer: C,D
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NO.6 Your client uses IBM DataPower (DP) appliances in their DMZ for detecting and mitigating XML-
based threats. They're currently unhappy with their (non-IBM) web and mobile security solution(s).
What should you do?
A. Talk to them about Tivoli Security Policy Manager as a policy authoring tool and decision engine in
support of the DP policy enforcement points.
B. Talk to them about IBM SAM for DataPower. They can leverage their DataPower investment,
adding web and enhanced mobile security to their DP appliances.
C. Talk to them about IBM SAM for Mobile's ability to integrate with DataPower.
D. Propose a replacement of their current Web and Mobile controls in their DMZ with IBM SAM for
Web and Mobile appliances, with a SAM for Mobile policy server supporting the SAM and DP
appliances in the DMZ.
Answer: A
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NO.7 In a potential IBM Security Access Manager (SAM) sale, the client is a large customer and has
large numbers of applications and servers involved in their SSO/Web authorization plans. Oracle
Access Manager (OAM) is the main competitor. What might you emphasize as you try to move the
customer in your direction?
A. SAM's secure reverse proxy is easier to manage than multiple OAM plugins.
B. SAM scales well and can do software distribution to any and all clients involved in the scope of the
SSO engagement.
C. SAM both scales well and performs well.
D. SAM is on a par with OAM from a scalability point of view, but it has a wider number of
applications that it supports out of the box.
Answer: A
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Please see sales mastery test policy for important information on non-proctored online test retake policy and test registration/cancellation policies.
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- Languages: English
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Exam Code: 9L0-521
Exam Name: OS X Server Essentials 10.9 Exam
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Updated: 07-15,2015
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NO.1 Which statement about Open Directory locales in OS X Server is TRUE?
A. Locales integrate the Open Directory domain with Active Directory forest names.
B. Locales organize Open Directory servers according to the subnet that they serve.
C. Locales affect which folders, if any, appear in the Network view on a Mac client computer.
D. Locales let administrators define language preferences, so that users can interact with services in
their preferred language
Answer: B
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NO.2 Which step is required in order to enable the management of OS X Server via Server app on a
client Mac?
A. On the client, open Server app, select the server, click Settings, and select "Allow remote
loginusing SSH."
B. On the client Mac, open the Sharing pane of System Preferences, and select Remote Management.
C. On the server, open Server app, select the server, click Settings, and select "Allow
remoteadministration using Server."
D. On the server, open the Sharing pane of System Preferences, and select Remote Management.
Answer: C
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NO.3 Which utility is on the OS X Recovery partition?
A. Firmware Password Utility
B. Boot Camp Assistant
C. Activity Monitor
D. Console
Answer: A
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NO.4 Which statement is TRUE of file and folder permissions in the Finder in OS X Mavericks?
A. A user with Write-only permissions to a folder can delete any file in that folder.
B. A user with Read-only permissions to a folder CANNOT rename any files in that folder.
C. A user with Write-only permissions to a folder can rename any file in that folder.
D. A user with Read-only permissions to a folder CANNOT view any files in that folder.
Answer: B
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NO.5 If you click Delete User in the dialog shown above, what will happen to James White's home
folder?
A. "Deleted" will be appended to the home folder name, and its permissions will be changed to allow
administrator user access only.
B. "Deleted" will be appended to the home folder name, and it will be archived in Time Machine in a
compressed and encrypted file.
C. It will be deleted immediately, without being moved to the Trash.
D. It will be moved to the Trash.
Answer: C
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NO.6 Pat is a member of the employees group. You have assigned permissions to a folder as shown in
the screenshot. What access does Pat have to the folder?
A. Pat has both read and write access to the folder.
B. Pat does not have any access to the folder.
C. Pat has write-only access to the folder.
D. Pat has read-only access to the folder.
Answer: A
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NO.7 If you click Enable User for the Logan White account, what is the effect?
A. FileVault 2 is enabled immediately for the Logan White account, and FileVault begins encrypting
the Logan White home folder.
B. You are prompted immediately to enter the login password for the Logan White account, after
which, Logan White will be able to unlock and decrypt the system disk, and restart the computer.
C. You are prompted immediately to enter an administrator password, after which, the user of the
Logan White account will be able to unlock and decrypt the system disk, and restart the computer.
D. At next login, the user of the Logan White account will be prompted to enter the login
password,after which, the user will be able to unlock and decrypt the system disk, and restart the
computer.
Answer: B
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NO.8 In Server app, which procedure will configure OS X Server to let members of a specific group
use the Messages services?
A. Select the messages service, click the Users and Groups tab, and then select the group, and click
OK.
B. Select Groups, then select the group, and from the Action pop-up menu, choose "Edit Access to
Service". Select the Messages checkbox, and click OK.
C. Select the server, click Access, and then click the Services button. Select Messages in the Services
list, click "Allow only users and groups below," click Add (+) to add the group, and then click done.
D. Select the server, click Settings, and then click the Services button. Select Messages in the Services
list, click Allow Access, click Add (+) to add the group, and click OK
Answer: B
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Exam Code: 9L0-521
Exam Name: OS X Server Essentials 10.9 Exam
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
Apple 9L0-521 Practice Exam 92 Q&As
Updated: 07-15,2015
9L0-521 Exam Dumps Detail : 9L0-521 Practice Exam
NO.1 Which statement about Open Directory locales in OS X Server is TRUE?
A. Locales integrate the Open Directory domain with Active Directory forest names.
B. Locales organize Open Directory servers according to the subnet that they serve.
C. Locales affect which folders, if any, appear in the Network view on a Mac client computer.
D. Locales let administrators define language preferences, so that users can interact with services in
their preferred language
Answer: B
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NO.2 Which step is required in order to enable the management of OS X Server via Server app on a
client Mac?
A. On the client, open Server app, select the server, click Settings, and select "Allow remote
loginusing SSH."
B. On the client Mac, open the Sharing pane of System Preferences, and select Remote Management.
C. On the server, open Server app, select the server, click Settings, and select "Allow
remoteadministration using Server."
D. On the server, open the Sharing pane of System Preferences, and select Remote Management.
Answer: C
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NO.3 Which utility is on the OS X Recovery partition?
A. Firmware Password Utility
B. Boot Camp Assistant
C. Activity Monitor
D. Console
Answer: A
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NO.4 Which statement is TRUE of file and folder permissions in the Finder in OS X Mavericks?
A. A user with Write-only permissions to a folder can delete any file in that folder.
B. A user with Read-only permissions to a folder CANNOT rename any files in that folder.
C. A user with Write-only permissions to a folder can rename any file in that folder.
D. A user with Read-only permissions to a folder CANNOT view any files in that folder.
Answer: B
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NO.5 If you click Delete User in the dialog shown above, what will happen to James White's home
folder?
A. "Deleted" will be appended to the home folder name, and its permissions will be changed to allow
administrator user access only.
B. "Deleted" will be appended to the home folder name, and it will be archived in Time Machine in a
compressed and encrypted file.
C. It will be deleted immediately, without being moved to the Trash.
D. It will be moved to the Trash.
Answer: C
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NO.6 Pat is a member of the employees group. You have assigned permissions to a folder as shown in
the screenshot. What access does Pat have to the folder?
A. Pat has both read and write access to the folder.
B. Pat does not have any access to the folder.
C. Pat has write-only access to the folder.
D. Pat has read-only access to the folder.
Answer: A
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NO.7 If you click Enable User for the Logan White account, what is the effect?
A. FileVault 2 is enabled immediately for the Logan White account, and FileVault begins encrypting
the Logan White home folder.
B. You are prompted immediately to enter the login password for the Logan White account, after
which, Logan White will be able to unlock and decrypt the system disk, and restart the computer.
C. You are prompted immediately to enter an administrator password, after which, the user of the
Logan White account will be able to unlock and decrypt the system disk, and restart the computer.
D. At next login, the user of the Logan White account will be prompted to enter the login
password,after which, the user will be able to unlock and decrypt the system disk, and restart the
computer.
Answer: B
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NO.8 In Server app, which procedure will configure OS X Server to let members of a specific group
use the Messages services?
A. Select the messages service, click the Users and Groups tab, and then select the group, and click
OK.
B. Select Groups, then select the group, and from the Action pop-up menu, choose "Edit Access to
Service". Select the Messages checkbox, and click OK.
C. Select the server, click Access, and then click the Services button. Select Messages in the Services
list, click "Allow only users and groups below," click Add (+) to add the group, and then click done.
D. Select the server, click Settings, and then click the Services button. Select Messages in the Services
list, click Allow Access, click Add (+) to add the group, and click OK
Answer: B
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2015年7月13日星期一
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Exam Code: 101-400
Exam Name: LPI Level 1 Exam 101, Junior Level Linux Certification, Part 1 of 2
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Lpi 101-400 Test Answers 120 Q&As
Updated: 07-13,2015
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NO.1 Which of the following are init systems used within Linux systems? (Choose THREE correct
answers.)
A. startd
B. systemd
C. Upstart
D. SysInit
E. SysV init
Answer: B,C,E
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NO.2 What is the first program that is usually started, at boot time, by the Linux kernel when using
SysV init?
A. /lib/init.so
B. /sbin/init
C. /etc/rc.d/rcinit
D. /proc/sys/kernel/init
E. /boot/init
Answer: B
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NO.3 Which of the following statements is correct when talking about /proc/?
A. All changes to files in /proc/ are stored in /etc/proc.d/ and restored on reboot.
B. All files within /proc/ are read-only and their contents cannot be changed.
C. All changes to files in /proc/ are immediately recognized by the kernel.
D. All files within /proc/ are only readable by the root user.
Answer: C
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NO.4 Which of the following commands reboots the system when using SysV init? (Choose TWO
correct answers.)
A. shutdown -r now
B. shutdown -r "rebooting"
C. telinit 6
D. telinit 0
E. shutdown -k now "rebooting"
Answer: A,C
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NO.5 Which run levels should never be declared as the default run level when using SysV init?
(Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 5
E. 6
Answer: A,E
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NO.6 Which of the following commands brings a system running SysV init into a state in which it is
safe to perform maintenance tasks? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. shutdown -R 1 now
B. shutdown -single now
C. init 1
D. telinit 1
E. runlevel 1
Answer: C,D
Lpi 101-400 Real Questions 101-400
NO.7 CORRECT TEXT
Which command will display messages from the kernel that were output during the normal boot
sequence?
Answer: dmesg, /bin/dmesg
NO.8 What of the following statements are true regarding /dev/ when using udev? (Choose TWO
correct answers.)
A. Entries for all possible devices get created on boot even if those devices are not connected.
B. Additional rules for udev can be created by adding them to /etc/udev/rules.d/.
C. When using udev, it is not possible to create block or character devices in /dev/ using mknod.
D. The /dev/ directory is a filesystem of type tmpfs and is mounted by udev during system startup.
E. The content of /dev/ is stored in /etc/udev/dev and is restored during system startup.
Answer: B,D
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Exam Code: 101-400
Exam Name: LPI Level 1 Exam 101, Junior Level Linux Certification, Part 1 of 2
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
Lpi 101-400 Test Answers 120 Q&As
Updated: 07-13,2015
101-400 Actual Test Detail : 101-400 Test Answers
NO.1 Which of the following are init systems used within Linux systems? (Choose THREE correct
answers.)
A. startd
B. systemd
C. Upstart
D. SysInit
E. SysV init
Answer: B,C,E
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NO.2 What is the first program that is usually started, at boot time, by the Linux kernel when using
SysV init?
A. /lib/init.so
B. /sbin/init
C. /etc/rc.d/rcinit
D. /proc/sys/kernel/init
E. /boot/init
Answer: B
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NO.3 Which of the following statements is correct when talking about /proc/?
A. All changes to files in /proc/ are stored in /etc/proc.d/ and restored on reboot.
B. All files within /proc/ are read-only and their contents cannot be changed.
C. All changes to files in /proc/ are immediately recognized by the kernel.
D. All files within /proc/ are only readable by the root user.
Answer: C
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NO.4 Which of the following commands reboots the system when using SysV init? (Choose TWO
correct answers.)
A. shutdown -r now
B. shutdown -r "rebooting"
C. telinit 6
D. telinit 0
E. shutdown -k now "rebooting"
Answer: A,C
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NO.5 Which run levels should never be declared as the default run level when using SysV init?
(Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 5
E. 6
Answer: A,E
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NO.6 Which of the following commands brings a system running SysV init into a state in which it is
safe to perform maintenance tasks? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. shutdown -R 1 now
B. shutdown -single now
C. init 1
D. telinit 1
E. runlevel 1
Answer: C,D
Lpi 101-400 Real Questions 101-400
NO.7 CORRECT TEXT
Which command will display messages from the kernel that were output during the normal boot
sequence?
Answer: dmesg, /bin/dmesg
NO.8 What of the following statements are true regarding /dev/ when using udev? (Choose TWO
correct answers.)
A. Entries for all possible devices get created on boot even if those devices are not connected.
B. Additional rules for udev can be created by adding them to /etc/udev/rules.d/.
C. When using udev, it is not possible to create block or character devices in /dev/ using mknod.
D. The /dev/ directory is a filesystem of type tmpfs and is mounted by udev during system startup.
E. The content of /dev/ is stored in /etc/udev/dev and is restored during system startup.
Answer: B,D
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LPIC-3 304: Virtualization & High Availability
LPIC-3 is a professional certification program program that covers enterprise Linux specialties. LPIC-3 304 covers administering Linux enterprise-wide with an emphasis on Virtualization & High Availability.
Exam Objectives Version: Version 2.0 (last update: December 4th, 2014)
Exam Covered: LPIC-3 304 (304-200); Exam 1 of 1 to obtain LPIC-3 Linux Enterprise Professional: certification
Objectives Reflected in Published Exam: February 17th, 2015
Required Prerequisite: Successfully pass LPIC-1 101 and 102 and LPIC-2 201 and 202 exams
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LPIC-3 is a professional certification program program that covers enterprise Linux specialties. LPIC-3 304 covers administering Linux enterprise-wide with an emphasis on Virtualization & High Availability.
Exam Objectives Version: Version 2.0 (last update: December 4th, 2014)
Exam Covered: LPIC-3 304 (304-200); Exam 1 of 1 to obtain LPIC-3 Linux Enterprise Professional: certification
Objectives Reflected in Published Exam: February 17th, 2015
Required Prerequisite: Successfully pass LPIC-1 101 and 102 and LPIC-2 201 and 202 exams
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C_HANATEC142 SAP Certified Technology Associate - SAP HANA
(Edition 2014)
Solution: SAP HANA
Delivery Methods: Certification
Duration: 180
Level: Associate
Exam: - 80 questions, PDF Link, Cut Score 57
Languages: English, Japanese
Monitoring of SAP HANA > 12%
Operation of SAP HANA > 12%
Security and authorization > 12%
SAP HANA Installation 8% - 12%
Backup & recovery 8% - 12%
System architecture 8% - 12%
Troubleshooting of SAP HANA 8% - 12%
High availability & disaster tolerance < 8%
Data Provisioning < 8%
Database Migration to SAP HANA < 8%
The "SAP Certified Technology Associate - SAP HANA (Edition 2014)" certification exam verifies that the candidate possesses the required knowledge in the area of the SAP HANA SPS08 for the profile of an SAP HANA technology consultant. This certificate builds on the basic knowledge gained through related SAP HANA training and preferably refined by practical experience within an SAP HANA project team, whereby the consultant applies acquired knowledge in this specialist area practically in projects.
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Exam Code: C_HANATEC142
Exam Name: SAP Certified Technology Associate - SAP HANA (Edition 2014)
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Delivery Methods: Certification
Duration: 180
Level: Associate
Exam: - 80 questions, PDF Link, Cut Score 57
Languages: English, Japanese
Monitoring of SAP HANA > 12%
Operation of SAP HANA > 12%
Security and authorization > 12%
SAP HANA Installation 8% - 12%
Backup & recovery 8% - 12%
System architecture 8% - 12%
Troubleshooting of SAP HANA 8% - 12%
High availability & disaster tolerance < 8%
Data Provisioning < 8%
Database Migration to SAP HANA < 8%
The "SAP Certified Technology Associate - SAP HANA (Edition 2014)" certification exam verifies that the candidate possesses the required knowledge in the area of the SAP HANA SPS08 for the profile of an SAP HANA technology consultant. This certificate builds on the basic knowledge gained through related SAP HANA training and preferably refined by practical experience within an SAP HANA project team, whereby the consultant applies acquired knowledge in this specialist area practically in projects.
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2015年7月12日星期日
ITCertMaster provides to IBM C2010-511 test materials
NO.1 IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for System Backup and Recovery is used with
which operating
system?
A. AIX
B. Linux
C. HP-UX
D. Windows
Answer: A
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NO.2 When would enhanced scheduling be used?
A. To schedule a backup on specific days of the month.
B. When a schedule has to be spread over multiple servers.
C. To load balance nodes across different schedules automatically.
D. When multiple nodes need to be assigned to a specific schedule.
Answer: A
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Reference:http://www01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSTFZR_7.1.0/com.ibm.itsm.client.doc
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NO.3 Which three choices are determined by including the customer's networking staff in an IBM
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A. Are nightly archives of specific files necessary?
B. Is SSL required for client-server communications?
C. Is the client option PRESCHEDULECMD necessary?
D. Is TSM for SAN an appropriate choice for deployment?
E. Is journal-based backup an appropriate choice for deployment?
F. Which TSM components need to be configured for communication through a firewall?
Answer: B,D,F
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NO.4 What is the function of reconciliation in IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM)?
A. It removes obsolete data from the TSM database.
B. It logs orphan stubs and deletes obsolete copies of files.
C. It removes orphan stub files from the TSM server database.
D. It repopulates orphan stubs and deletes obsolete copies of the files.
Answer: B
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Reference:http://pic.dhe.ibm.com/infocenter/tsminfo/v7r1/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.ibm.itsm.hsmw
in.doc%2Fc_reconcile.html
NO.5 Which Tivoli Storage Manager server option is required when using the perform lieaction
command?
A. HWDISCOVERYON
B. LANDISCOVERYON
C. SANDISCOVERYON
D. TAPEDISCOVERY ON
Answer: C
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NO.6 Which task or process can be included in an administrative schedule?
A. client backup
B. import database
C. ingestion of data
D. database backup
Answer: D
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NO.7 A customer has installed IBM Tivoli Storage FlashCopy Manager (FCM) on server CSISQL05 and
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so they can back up the MS/SQL snapshots to IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM)?
A. Configure TSM for Databases (MS SQL) on the server CSISQL05.
B. Run the TSM for Databases (MS SQL) license wizard that is part of FCM.
C. Install TSM for Databases (MS SQL) on the server that will function as the proxy server.
D. Click the Failed button on the Requirements Check screen, browse to the license file location, and
select it.
Answer: A
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NO.8 What is the purpose of the dsmserv.opt ACTIVELOGSIZE option?
A. It defines the size of the active log.
B. It adds additional space to the active log.
C. It updates the amount of storage space for active versions with a reboot.
D. It updates the space allowed for the activity log in the Tivoli Storage Manager server without
downtime.
Answer: A
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Reference:http://www01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSSQZW_7.1.0/com.ibm.itsm.srv.doc/
t_act_log_size_incre ase.html
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Exam Code: C2010-511
Exam Name: IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V7.1 Implementation
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Updated: 07-12,2015
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Article Link: http://exam.it2blog.com/2015/01/08/p2090-086-bootcamp-c2010-511-exam-questions/
system?
A. AIX
B. Linux
C. HP-UX
D. Windows
Answer: A
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NO.2 When would enhanced scheduling be used?
A. To schedule a backup on specific days of the month.
B. When a schedule has to be spread over multiple servers.
C. To load balance nodes across different schedules automatically.
D. When multiple nodes need to be assigned to a specific schedule.
Answer: A
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Reference:http://www01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSTFZR_7.1.0/com.ibm.itsm.client.doc
/c_sched_display.ht ml
NO.3 Which three choices are determined by including the customer's networking staff in an IBM
Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) V7.1 pre-implementation planning meeting?
A. Are nightly archives of specific files necessary?
B. Is SSL required for client-server communications?
C. Is the client option PRESCHEDULECMD necessary?
D. Is TSM for SAN an appropriate choice for deployment?
E. Is journal-based backup an appropriate choice for deployment?
F. Which TSM components need to be configured for communication through a firewall?
Answer: B,D,F
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NO.4 What is the function of reconciliation in IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM)?
A. It removes obsolete data from the TSM database.
B. It logs orphan stubs and deletes obsolete copies of files.
C. It removes orphan stub files from the TSM server database.
D. It repopulates orphan stubs and deletes obsolete copies of the files.
Answer: B
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Reference:http://pic.dhe.ibm.com/infocenter/tsminfo/v7r1/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.ibm.itsm.hsmw
in.doc%2Fc_reconcile.html
NO.5 Which Tivoli Storage Manager server option is required when using the perform lieaction
command?
A. HWDISCOVERYON
B. LANDISCOVERYON
C. SANDISCOVERYON
D. TAPEDISCOVERY ON
Answer: C
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NO.6 Which task or process can be included in an administrative schedule?
A. client backup
B. import database
C. ingestion of data
D. database backup
Answer: D
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NO.7 A customer has installed IBM Tivoli Storage FlashCopy Manager (FCM) on server CSISQL05 and
is successfully creating snapshots locally for a Microsoft SQL (MS SQL) database. What must be done
so they can back up the MS/SQL snapshots to IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM)?
A. Configure TSM for Databases (MS SQL) on the server CSISQL05.
B. Run the TSM for Databases (MS SQL) license wizard that is part of FCM.
C. Install TSM for Databases (MS SQL) on the server that will function as the proxy server.
D. Click the Failed button on the Requirements Check screen, browse to the license file location, and
select it.
Answer: A
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NO.8 What is the purpose of the dsmserv.opt ACTIVELOGSIZE option?
A. It defines the size of the active log.
B. It adds additional space to the active log.
C. It updates the amount of storage space for active versions with a reboot.
D. It updates the space allowed for the activity log in the Tivoli Storage Manager server without
downtime.
Answer: A
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Reference:http://www01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSSQZW_7.1.0/com.ibm.itsm.srv.doc/
t_act_log_size_incre ase.html
In order to allow you to safely choose ITCertMaster, part of the best IBM certification C2010-511 exam materials provided online, you can try to free download to determine our reliability. We can not only help you pass the exam once for all, but also can help you save a lot of valuable time and effort. ITCertMaster can provide you with the real IBM certification C2010-511 exam practice questions and answers to ensure you 100% pass the exam. When having passed IBM certification C2010-511 exam your status in the IT area will be greatly improved and your prospect will be good.
ITCertMaster have a professional IT team to do research for practice questions and answers of the IBM C2010-511 exam certification exam. They provide a very effective training tools and online services for your. If you want to buy ITCertMaster products, ITCertMaster will provide you with the latest, the best quality and very detailed training materials as well as a very accurate exam practice questions and answers to be fully prepared for you to participate in the IBM certification C2010-511 exam. Safely use the questions provided by ITCertMaster's products. Selecting the ITCertMaster is equal to be 100% passing the exam.
The community has a lot of talent, people constantly improve their own knowledge to reach a higher level. But the country's demand for high-end IT staff is still expanding, internationally as well. So many people want to pass IBM C2010-511 certification exam. But it is not easy to pass the exam. However, in fact, as long as you choose a good training materials to pass the exam is not impossible. We ITCertMaster IBM C2010-511 exam training materials in full possession of the ability to help you through the certification. ITCertMaster website training materials are proved by many candidates, and has been far ahead in the international arena. . If you want to through IBM C2010-511 certification exam, add the ITCertMaster IBM C2010-511 exam training to Shopping Cart quickly!
If you want to make your IT dream come true, you just need to choose the professional training materials. ITCertMaster is a professional website to provide IT certification training materials. Our C2010-511 exam training materials is the result of ITCertMaster's experienced IT experts with constant exploration, practice and research for many years. After you purchase our C2010-511 Dumps PDF training materials, we will provide one year free renewal service.
The exam materiala of the ITCertMaster IBM C2010-511 is specifically designed for candicates. It is a professional exam materials that the IT elite team specially tailored for you. Passed the exam certification in the IT industry will be reflected in international value. There are many dumps and training materials providers that would guarantee you pass the IBM C2010-511 exam. ITCertMaster speak with the facts, the moment when the miracle occurs can prove every word we said.
ITCertMaster's expert team use their experience and knowledge to study the examinations of past years and finally have developed the best training materials about IBM certification C2010-511 exam. Our IBM certification C2010-511 exam training materials are very popular among customers and this is the result ofITCertMaster's expert team industrious labor. The simulation test and the answer of their research have a high quality and have 95% similarity with the true examination questions. ITCertMaster is well worthful for you to rely on. If you use ITCertMaster's training tool, you can 100% pass your first time to attend IBM certification C2010-511 exam.
ITCertMaster's IBM C2010-511 exam training materials' simulation is particularly high. You can encounter the same questions in the real real exam. This only shows that the ability of our IT elite team is really high. Now many ambitious IT staff to make their own configuration files compatible with the market demand, to realize their ideals through these hot IT exam certification. Achieved excellent results in the IBM C2010-511 exam. With the IBM C2010-511 exam training of ITCertMaster, the door of the dream will open for you.
Exam Code: C2010-511
Exam Name: IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V7.1 Implementation
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
IBM C2010-511 PDF VCE 140 Q&As
Updated: 07-12,2015
C2010-511 Practice Test Detail : C2010-511 PDF VCE
ITCertMaster offer the latest 70-347 Practice Test and high-quality HP2-N46 PDF Exam Questions training material. Our HP2-N50 VCE testing engine and VCP5-DCV dumps can help you pass the real exam. High-quality HP2-N40 Exam Questions & Answers can 100% guarantee you pass the exam faster and easier. Pass the exam to obtain certification is so simple.
Article Link: http://exam.it2blog.com/2015/01/08/p2090-086-bootcamp-c2010-511-exam-questions/
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